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QUESTION 1
Terraform Enterprise currently supports running under which the following operating systems?
A. Ubuntu
B. Amazon Linux
C. Debian
D. CentOS
E. Red Hat Enterprise Linux
F. Oracle Linux
Correct Answer: ABCDEF
Terraform Enterprise runs on Linux instances, and you must prepare a running Linux instance for Terraform Enterprise
before running the installer. You will start and manage this instance like any other server. Terraform Enterprise currently
supports running under the following operating systems: Standalone deployment: Debian 7.7+ Ubuntu 14.04.5 / 16.04 /
18.04 Red Hat Enterprise Linux 7.4 – 7.8 CentOS 6.x / 7.4 – 7.8 Amazon Linux 2014.03 / 2014.09 / 2015.03 / 2015.09 /
2016.03 / 2016.09 / 2017.03 / 2017.09 / 2018.03 / 2.0 Oracle Linux 7.4 – 7.8
https://www.terraform.io/docs/enterprise/before-installing/index.html

 

QUESTION 2
What is the result of the following terraform function call?
A. hello
B. what?
C. goodbye
Correct Answer: B
https://www.terraform.io/docs/configuration/functions/lookup.html

 

QUESTION 3
Which one of the following command will rewrite Terraform configuration files to a canonical format and style.
A. terraform graph -h
B. terraform init
C. terraform graph
D. terraform fmt

Correct Answer: D
The terraform fmt command is used to rewrite Terraform configuration files to a canonical format and style. This
command applies a subset of the Terrra Terraform language style conventions, along with other minor adjustments for
readability.

 

QUESTION 4
You have created 2 workspaces PROD and RQA
You have switched to RQA and provisioned RQA infrastructure from this workspace. Where is your state file stored?
A. terraform.tfstate.d
B. terraform.d
C. terraform.tfstate.RQA
D. terraform.tfstate
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
Which of the below are paid features of Terraform Cloud?
A. Full API Coverage
B. Secure variable Storage
C. Roles/ Team management
D. Cost Estimation
E. Private Module Registry
F. Sentinel policies
Correct Answer: CDF
https://www.hashicorp.com/products/terraform/pricing/

 

QUESTION 6
Matt wants to import a manually created EC2 instance into terraform so that he can manage the EC2 instance through
terraform going forward. He has written the configuration file of the EC2 instance before importing it to Terraform.
Following is the code:
resource “aws_instance” “matt_ec2” { ami = “ami-bg2640de” instance_type = “t2.micro” vpc_security_group_ids =
[“sg-6ae7d613”, “sg-53370035”] key_name = “mysecret” subnet_id = “subnet-9e3cfbc5” } The instance id of that EC2
instance
is i-0260835eb7e9bd40 How he can import data of EC2 to state file?
A. terraform import aws_instance.id = i-0260835eb7e9bd40
B. terraform import i-0260835eb7e9bd40
C. terraform import aws_instance.i-0260835eb7e9bd40
D. terraform import aws_instance.matt_ec2 i-0260835eb7e9bd40
Correct Answer: D
https://www.terraform.io/docs/import/usage.html

 

QUESTION 7
By default, where does Terraform store its state file?
A. Amazon S3 bucket
B. shared directory
C. remotely using Terraform Cloud
D. current working directory
Correct Answer: D
By default, the state file is stored in a local file named “terraform.tfstate”, but it can also be stored remotely, which works
better in a team environment.

 

QUESTION 8
Which Terraform command will check and report errors within modules, attribute names, and value types to make sure
they are syntactically valid and internally consistent?
A. terraform validate
B. terraform format
C. terraform fmt
D. terraform show
Correct Answer: A
The terraform validate command validates the configuration files in a directory, referring only to the configuration and
not accessing any remote services such as remote state, provider APIs, etc. Validate runs checks that verify whether a
configuration is syntactically valid and internally consistent, regardless of any provided variables or existing state. It is
thus primarily useful for general verification of reusable modules, including the correctness of attribute names and value
types. It is safe to run this command automatically, for example as a post-save check in a text editor or as a test step for
a re-usable module in a CI system.

 

QUESTION 9
A user has created a module called “my_test_module” and committed it to GitHub. Over time, several commits have
been made with updates to the module, each tagged in GitHub with an incremental version number. Which of the
following lines would be required in a module configuration block in terraform to select tagged version v1.0.4?
A. source = “git::https://example.com/[email protected]=v1.0.4”
B. source = “git::https://example.com/my_test_module.gitandref=v1.0.4”
C. source = “git::https://example.com/my_test_module.git#tag=v1.0.4”
D. source = “git::https://example.com/my_test_module.git?ref=v1.0.4”
Correct Answer: D
https://www.terraform.io/docs/modules/sources.html#selecting-a-revision

 

QUESTION 10
Terraform variables and outputs that set the “description” argument will store that description in the state file.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.terraform.io/docs/language/values/outputs.html

 

QUESTION 11
Which of the following clouds does not have a provider maintained HashiCorp?
A. IBM Cloud
B. DigitalOcean
C. OpenStack
D. AWS
Correct Answer: A
IBM Cloud does not have a provider maintained by HashiCorp, although IBM Cloud does maintain their own Terraform
provider. https://www.terraform.io/docs/providers/index.html


QUESTION 12
What resource dependency information is stored in Terraform\\’s state?
A. Only implicit dependencies are stored in state.
B. Both implicit and explicit dependencies are stored in state.
C. Only explicit dependencies are stored in state.
D. No dependency information is stored in state.
Correct Answer: B
Terraform state captures all dependency information, both implicit and explicit. One purpose for state is to determine the
proper order to destroy resources. When resources are created all of their dependency information is stored in the
state.
If you destroy a resource with dependencies, Terraform can still determine the correct destroy order for all other
resources because the dependencies are stored in the state.
https://www.terraform.io/docs/state/purpose.html#metadata

 

QUESTION 13
State locking does not happen automatically and must be specified at run
A. False
B. True
Correct Answer: A
State locking happens automatically on all operations that could write state.
https://www.terraform.io/docs/state/locking.html

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Exam MB-210: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Sales: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/mb-210

Candidates for this exam are Dynamics 365 functional consultants with sales expertise. Candidates are responsible for implementing solutions that support a sales life cycle to run efficiently and effectively to meet revenue targets, business strategies, and company objectives.

Candidates are responsible for configuring and expanding the core functionality of Leads, Contacts, Accounts, Opportunities and supporting entities to map to the sales processes in place at the company. They identify opportunities to use Power Apps to develop unified experiences for all devices, Power Automate for application integration, business process flows, and other automation tools to construct an application that supports and accelerates the “lead to cash journey.”

Candidates must have the strong business knowledge and preferably first-person experience in the sales world in one or more sales roles.

Skills measured

  • Perform configuration (40-45%)
  • Manage core sales entities (20-25%)
  • Manage sales entities (35-40%)

Latest updates Microsoft MB-210 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
You create an invoice with products and services for a customer.
You need to add pricing for a product that is not available in the product catalog.
What should you do?
A. Add the product to the order and use Get Products
B. Add a write-in product
C. Add an existing product and change the name and price
D. Add the product to the quote and use Get Products
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/sales-enterprise/add-product-quote-order-invoice

QUESTION 2
You manage a Dynamics 365 Sales environment.
You need to configure the default status for each lead.
Which status reason should you associate to each scenario? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer
area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
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QUESTION 3
You work in a sales role for an organization that uses Dynamics 365. You are managing an opportunity for a potential
customer.
You need to create a quote that automatically includes all the products from the opportunity.
What should you do?
A. Convert the opportunity to a quote
B. Create a new quote from the customer
C. Create a new quote from the opportunity
D. Create a new quote with the opportunity price list
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/developer/convert-opportunity-quote-sales-order-invoice

QUESTION 4
A company uses Dynamics 365 for Sales. The company has not made changes to any of the default security roles.
You need to ensure that users can assign salespeople to sales territories.
Which security role can you use?
A. Delegate
B. Sales Person
C. Sales Manager
D. System Customizer
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that answers each question based on the information presented
in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
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QUESTION 6
You manage a Dynamics 365 environment. A user named User1 begins work on an opportunity.
User1 asks a user named User2 to assist with the opportunity while she is on vacation.
You need to ensure that User2 can access the opportunity and that User1 retains ownership of the opportunity.
What should you do?
A. Share the record with User2
B. Grant User2 the stakeholder role
C. Grant User2 the security role
D. Instruct User2 to follow the record
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/developer/security-dev/use-record-based-security-control-access-records#sharing-records

QUESTION 7
You are a Dynamics 365 for Sales administrator.
The sales team is having difficulty locating related products.
You need to make it easier for the sales team to find groups of products that are similar.
What should you use?
A. Related products
B. Product bundles
C. Product families
D. Product unit groups
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/sales-enterprise/define-related-products-increase-chances-sales

QUESTION 8
You are a Dynamics 365 administrator.
You need to configure action cards in Relationship Assistant.
Which action card should you enable for each scenario? To answer, drag the appropriate action cards to the correct
scenarios. Each action card may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar
between
panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
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Correct Answer:

lead4pass mb-210 exam question q8-1

 

QUESTION 9
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the
review screen.
A customer recently visited one of your retail outlets. You created an opportunity for the customer for a large purchase.
The customer is now ready to complete the purchase.
You need to create a quote from the opportunity.
Solution: Convert the Opportunity to a quote.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/developer/convert-opportunity-quote-sales-order-invoice

QUESTION 10
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the
review screen.
You use business process flows for all Dynamics 365 opportunities.
Some opportunities are closed before business process flow durations are calculated.
You need to ensure that business process flow duration values are calculated.
Solution: On the last stage of the business process flow, select Finish.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the
review screen.
A company plans to move their headquarters from the United States to Europe.
You need to round all currency values to four decimal places and display the correct currency symbol.
Solution: Change the default currency.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
A company uses Dynamics 365 for Sales. The company has not made changes to any of the default security roles.
You need to ensure that users can assign salespeople to sales territories.
Which security role can you use?
A. Marketing Professional
B. Sales Person
C. Delegate
D. CEO ?Business Manager
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/admin/set-up-sales-territories-organize-business-markets-geographical-area

QUESTION 13
A company plans to close early on the last day of the month for an employee celebration.
You need to configure Dynamics 365 to prevent scheduling of sales support resources for that day.
Which feature should you use?
A. Events
B. Business closure
C. Fiscal calendar
D. Time off request
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/customer-service/set-when-business-closed-csh

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QUESTION 1
Mule application A receives a request Anypoint MQ message REQU with a payload containing a variable-length list of
request objects. Application A uses the For Each scope to split the list into individual objects and sends each object as a
message to an Anypoint MQ queue.
Service S listens on that queue, processes each message independently of all other messages, and sends a response
message to a response queue.
Application A listens on that response queue and must in turn create and publish a response Anypoint MQ message
RESP with a payload containing the list of responses sent by service S in the same order as the request objects
originally
sent in REQU.
Assume successful response messages are returned by service S for all request messages.
What is required so that application A can ensure that the length and order of the list of objects in RESP and REQU
match, while at the same time maximizing message throughput?
A. Perform all communication involving service S synchronously from within the For Each scope, so objects in RESP
are in the exact same order as request objects in REQU
B. Use a Scatter-Gather within the For Each scope to ensure response message order Configure the Scatter-Gather
with a persistent object store
C. Keep track of the list length and all object indices in REQU, both in the For Each scope and in all communication
involving service. Use persistent storage when creating RESP
D. Use an Async scope within the For Each scope and collect response messages in a second For Each scope in the
order in which they arrive, then send RESP using this list of responses
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. A business process involves the receipt of a file from an external vendor over SFTP. The file needs
to be parsed and its content processed, validated, and ultimately persisted to a database. The delivery mechanism is
expected to change in the future as more vendors send similar files using other mechanisms such as file transfer or
HTTP POST.
What is the most effective way to design for these requirements in order to minimize the impact of future change?[2021.1] lead4pass MCIA-LEVEL-1 exam questions q2

A. Use a composite data source so files can be retrieved from various sources and delivered to a MuleSoft Batch Job
for processing
B. Use a MuleSoft Scatter-Gather and a MuleSoft Batch Job to handle the different files coming from different sources
C. Create a Process API to receive the file and process it using a MuleSoft Batch Job while delegating the data to save the process to a System API
D. Create an API that receives the file and invokes a Process API with the data contained in the file, then have the
Process API process the data using a MuleSoft Batch Job and other System APIs as needed
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
An organization currently uses a multi-node Mule runtime deployment model within their datacenter, so each Mule
runtime hosts several Mule applications. The organization is planning to transition to a deployment model based on
Docker containers in a Kubernetes cluster. The organization has already created a standard Docker image containing a
Mule runtime and all required dependencies (including a JVM), but excluding the Mule application itself.
What is an expected outcome of this transition to container-based Mule application deployments?
A. Guaranteed consistency of execution environments across all deployments of a Mule application
B. Required change to the URL endpoints used by clients to send requests to the Mule applications
C. Required migration to the Docker and Kubernetes-based Anypoint Platform – Private Cloud Edition
D. Required redesign of Mule applications to follow microservice architecture principles
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
Mule applications need to be deployed to CloudHub so they can access on-premises database systems. These systems
store sensitive and hence tightly protected data, so are not accessible over the internet.
What network architecture supports this requirement?
A. An Anypoint VPC connected to the on-premises network using an IPsec tunnel or AWS DirectConnect, plus matching
firewall rules in the VPC and on-premises network
B. Relocation of the database systems to a DMZ in the on-premises network, with Mule applications deployed to the
CloudHub Shared Worker Cloud connecting only to the DMZ
C. An Anypoint VPC with one Dedicated Load Balancer fronting each on-premises database system, plus matching IP
whitelisting in the load balancer and firewall rules in the VPC and on-premises network
D. Static IP addresses for the Mule applications deployed to the CloudHub Shared Worker Cloud, plus matching firewall
rules and IP whitelisting in the on-premises network
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
An integration Mule application consumes and processes a list of rows from a CSV file. Each row must be read from the
CSV file, validated, and the row data sent to a JMS queue, in the exact order as in the CSV file.
If any processing step for a row fails, then a log entry must be written for that row, but processing of other rows must not
be affected.
What combination of Mule components is most idiomatic (used according to their intended purpose) when implementing
the above requirements?
A. Scatter-Gather component On Error Continue scope
B. VM connector First Successful scope On Error Propagate scope
C. Async scope On Error Propagate scope
D. For Each scope On Error Continue scope
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6
What aspects of a CI/CD pipeline for Mule applications can be automated using MuleSoft-provided Maven plugins?
A. Import from API designer, compile, package, unit test, deploy, publish to Anypoint Exchange
B. Compile, package, unit test, validate unit test coverage, deploy
C. Compile, package, unit test, deploy, integration test
D. Compile, package, unit test, deploy, create associated API instances in API Manager
Correct Answer: C
Reference: http://workshop.tools.mulesoft.com/modules/module7_lab4#step-2-configure-the-mule-maven-plugin

 

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. An organization deploys multiple Mule applications to the same customer-hosted Mule runtime.
Many of these Mule applications must expose an HTTPS endpoint on the same port using a server-side certificate that
rotates often.
What is the most effective way to package the HTTP Listener and package or store the server-side certificate when
deploying these Mule applications, so the disruption caused by certificate rotation is minimized?[2021.1] lead4pass MCIA-LEVEL-1 exam questions q7

A. Package the HTTPS Listener configuration in a Mule DOMAIN project, referencing it from all Mule applications that
need to expose an HTTPS endpoint Store the server-side certificate in a shared filesystem location in the Mule
runtime\\’s classpath, OUTSIDE the Mule DOMAIN or any Mule APPLICATION
B. Package the HTTPS Listener configuration in a Mule DOMAIN project, referencing it from all Mule applications that
need to expose an HTTPS endpoint Package the server-side certificate in ALL Mule APPLICATIONS that need to
expose an HTTPS endpoint
C. Package the HTTPS Listener configuration in a Mule DOMAIN project, referencing it from all Mule applications that
need to expose an HTTPS endpoint Package the server-side certificate in the SAME Mule DOMAIN project
D. Package an HTTPS Listener configuration in all Mule APPLICATIONS that need to expose an HTTPS endpoint
Package the server-side certificate in a NEW Mule DOMAIN project
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. A business process involves two APIs that interact with each other asynchronously over HTTP.
Each API is implemented as a Mule application. API 1 receives the initial HTTP request and invokes API 2 (in a fire and
forget fashion) while API 2, upon completion of the processing, calls back into API 1 to notify about completion of the
asynchronous process.
Each API is deployed to multiple redundant Mule runtimes and a separate load balancer and is deployed to a separate
network zone. In the network architecture, how must the firewall rules be configured to enable the above interaction
between API 1 and API 2?[2021.1] lead4pass MCIA-LEVEL-1 exam questions q8

A. To allow communication between the load balancers used by each API
B. To authorize the certificates used by both the APIs
C. To open direct two-way communication between the Mule runtimes of both APIs
D. To enable communication from each API\\’s Mule runtimes and network zone to the load balancer of the other API
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
What is required before an API implemented using the components of Anypoint Platform can be managed and governed
(by applying API policies) on Anypoint Platform?
A. A RAML definition of the API must be created in API designer so it can then be published to Anypoint Exchange
B. The API must be published to Anypoint Exchange and a corresponding API instance ID must be obtained from API
Manager to be used in the API implementation
C. The API must be shared with the potential developers through an API portal so API consumers can interact with the
API
D. The API implementation source code must be committed to a source control management system (such as GitHub)
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 10
What is a recommended practice when designing an integration Mule 4 application that reads a large XML payload as a
stream?
A. The payload must be cached using a Cache scope if it is to be sent to multiple backend systems
B. The payload size should NOT exceed the maximum available heap memory of the Mule runtime on which the Mule
application executes
C. The payload should be dealt with as an XML stream, without converting it to a single Java object (POJO)
D. The payload should be dealt with as a repeatable XML stream, which must only be traversed (iterated-over) once
and CANNOT be accessed randomly from DataWeave expressions and scripts
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. An organization is designing a Mule application to receive data from one external business partner.
The two companies currently have no shared IT infrastructure and do not want to establish one. Instead, all
communication should be over the public internet (with no VPN).
What Anypoint Connector can be used in the organization\\’s Mule application to securely receive data from this external
business partner?[2021.1] lead4pass MCIA-LEVEL-1 exam questions q11

A. SFTP connector
B. VM connector
C. Object Store connector
D. File connector
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 12
A Mule application currently writes to two separate SQL Server database instances across the internet using a single
XA transaction. It is proposed to split this one transaction into two separate non-XA transactions with no other changes
to the Mule application.
What non-functional requirement can be expected to be negatively affected when implementing this change?
A. Throughput
B. Availability
C. Response time
D. Consistency
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 13
A set of integration Mule applications, some of which expose APIs, are being created to enable a new business process.
Various stakeholders may be impacted by this. These stakeholders are a combination of semi-technical users (who
understand basic integration terminology and concepts such as JSON and XML) and technically skilled potential
consumers of the Mule applications and APIs.
What is an effective way for the project team responsible for the Mule applications and APIs being built to communicate
with these stakeholders using Anypoint Platform and its supplied toolset?
A. Create Anypoint Exchange entries with pages elaborating the integration design, including API notebooks (where
applicable) to help the stakeholders understand and interact with the Mule applications and APIs at various levels of
technical depth
B. Capture documentation about the Mule applications and APIs inline within the Mule integration flows and use
Anypoint Studio\\’s Export Documentation feature to provide an HTML version of this documentation to the
stakeholders
C. Use Anypoint Design Center to implement the Mule applications and APIs and give the various stakeholders access
to these Design Center projects, so they can collaborate and provide feedback
D. Use Anypoint Exchange to register the various Mule applications and APIs and share the RAML definitions with the
stakeholders, so they can be discovered
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
How are multiple conditions used in a Choice router to route events?
A. To route the same event to the matched route of EVERY true condition.
B. None of these.
C. To find the FIRST true condition, then distribute the event to the ONE matched route.
D. To find the FIRST true condition, then route the same event to the matched route and ALL FOLLOWING routes.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2
What does the zip operator do in DataWeave?
A. Minifies the size of value using encoding.
B. None of these.
C. Merges elements of two objects into a single object.
D. Merges elements of two lists (arrays) into a single list.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
What is the difference between a subflow and a sync flow?
A. Sync flow has no error handling of its own and subflow does.
B. Subflow has no error handling of its own and sync flow does.
C. Subflow is synchronous and sync flow is asynchronous.
D. No difference.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 4
What is the correct way to format the decimal 200.1234 as a string to two decimal places?
A. 200.1234 as string {format: “.0#”}
B. 200.1234 as string as format: “.0#”
C. 200.1234 as String {format: “.0#”}
D. 200.1234 as String as format: “.0#”
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
What statement is a part of MuleSoft\\’s description of an application network?
A. Creates and manages high availability and fault-tolerant services and infrastructure.
B. Creates reusable APIs and assets designed to be consumed by other business units.
C. Creates and manages a collection of JMS messaging services and infrastructure.
D. Leverages Central IT to deliver complete point-to-point solutions with master data management.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6
How to import Core (dw::Core) module into your DataWeave scripts?
A. import dw::core
B. Not needed
C. None of these
D. import core
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 7
What is the DataWeave expression to log the Content-Type header using a Logger component?
A. #[“Content-Type: ” ++ attributes.headers.\\’content-type\\’]
B. #[“Content-Type: ” ++ headers.\\’content-type\\’]
C. #[“Content-Type: ” + headers.\\’content-type\\’]
D. #[“Content-Type: ” + attributes.headers.\\’content-type\\’]
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
A. An event source
B. RAML file
C. An event processor
D. Logger Component
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
What is the trait name you would use for specifying client credentials in RAML?
A. headers
B. client-id
C. client-id-required
D. we do not specify in RAML
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 10
What HTTP method in a RESTful web service is typically used to completely replace an existing resource?
A. GET
B. PATCH
C. POST
D. PUT
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 11
http://dev.acme.com/api/patients?year=2016
A. Patient with id 2016
B. All patients
C. No patients
D. Patients from the year 2016
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 12
A flow has a JMS Publish consume operation followed by a JMS Publish operation. Both of these operations have the
default configurations.
Which operation is asynchronous and which one is synchronous?
A. Publish consume: Synchronous. Publish: Asynchronous.
B. Publish consume: Asynchronous. Publish: Synchronous.
C. Publish consume: Asynchronous. Publish: Asynchronous.
D. Publish consume: Synchronous. Publish: Synchronous.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
What DataWeave 2.0 type can be used as input to a map operation?
A. Object
B. Array
C. String
D. Map
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
An organization wishes to more efficiently produce services by adopting a DevOps culture. What transformation must
occur to support this adoption?
A. Implement a daily review meeting across departments
B. Unify management from various departments
C. Unify processes and methods from various departments
D. Co-locate staff from various departments
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2
An organization is using a hybrid cloud for services. They wish to mitigate the risk of compromising data confidentiality.
How can this be accomplished?
A. Include digital signature capabilities in services
B. Establish a parent-child relationship of data records
C. Include an option in the catalog for service placement
D. Include a data-at-rest encryption capability in services
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
An IT organization is very traditionally structured. The lines of business (Lobs) have been facing difficulties with the
representativeness of IT. The IT organization wishes to move to an ITaaS implementation.
What would be a benefit to the LOBs?
A. Improve the skill sets required for personnel in the LOBs.
B. Increase the visibility of products and services across the IT organization.
C. Get more budgets to run their business applications to meet SLAs.
D. Respond quickly to the marketplace with new products.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 4
Your company is an application service provider that hosts customer applications and data in your data center. The
entire infrastructure is client-server based and you have begun to assess the risk of moving your web applications to a
cloud-based infrastructure. During this phase, you are required to provide the value of corporate assets involved.
How should you assess these corporate assets?
A. Use realistic valuations
B. Create a valuation that is information-asset centric
C. Use original purchase values
D. Create values based on accelerated depreciation
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
An organization is using a hybrid cloud for services. Services are designed to use Load Balancers. Orchestration
workflows are designed so that service instances are placed in multiple fault domains. Why are services designed in
such a manner?
A. Minimize the impact of a security breach
B. Mitigate risk to service availability
C. Mitigate risk to service integrity
D. Minimize the impact of government policies
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6
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A company has an incident process in place for the cloud services that they support. What is the correct order of steps
for an incident process?
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QUESTION 7
An IT organization has hired you as a cloud architect to assist them in planning for cloud services. Your first goal is to
help the IT organization categorize existing services against service characteristics. You have provided a table that
shows common service characteristics and their attributes for considerations, benefits, and trade-offs.
The following attributes from the table have been identified:
Consideration: bundling services increases complexity Benefit: replaceable components, improved recovery from failure
Tradeoff: very finite capability
What characteristics correspond to the identified attributes?
A. Discoverable, Composable, and Idempotent
B. Discoverable, Reusable, and Autonomy
C. Composable, Loosely Coupled, and Autonomy
D. Idempotent, Loosely Coupled, and Reusable
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 8
In a hypothetical future scenario, a CEO wants real-time market sentiment and performance reports displayed on smartwatches and neural-optical data implants of all C-level and E-level corporate employees. The CEO also wants the
corporation\\’s intelligent lighting system to change color depending on current sentiment and performance data.
Currently, the corporation has no real-time market reporting capability.
What emerging 3rd Platform technologies enable the desired capabilities?
A. Big data analytics, augmented humans, and Internet of Things
B. Augmented humans, Internet of Things, and sensor networks
C. Internet of Things, sensor networks, and big data analytics
D. Sensor networks, big data analytics, and augmented humans
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
An IT organization has built cloud services and needs to decide on a chargeback model. Considering the existing
budget policy in their company, the financial controllers in the lines of business (LOBs) prefer consistent usage and
billing patterns. Additionally, they require that service consumption does not exceed planned usage.
Which chargeback model best fits this scenario?
A. Fixed cost and guaranteed resources with threshold limits for usage
B. Both guaranteed and variable resources allowing for overuse
C. Variable resources that allow flexibility for LOBs, with threshold limits for usage
D. Pay-as-you-use capability allows IT to maximize the utilization of resources.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 10
An IT organization has hired you as a cloud architect to assist them in planning for cloud services. Your first goal is to
help the IT organization categorize existing services against service characteristics. You have provided a table that
shows common service characteristics and their attributes for considerations, benefits, and trade-offs.
The following attributes from the table have been identified: -Consideration standardized service contracts and metadata
definitions -Benefit: development and implementation cost reduction -Tradeoff: very finite capability
What characteristics correspond to the identified attributes?
A. Loosely Coupled, Composable, and Autonomy
B. Discoverable, Reusable, and Autonomy
C. Idempotent, Composable, and Discoverable
D. Idempotent, Loosely Coupled, and Reusable
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
You have been asked by a company to help drive IT efficiency, focusing specifically on direct, short-term activities. What
would you recommend it?
A. Begin development of a self-service portal for the business to develop and deploy applications
B. Attempt to consolidate vendors of hardware and software running in the environment by simplifying workloads
C. Identify applications with workloads that run infrequently or that require boutique services for migration to the cloud
D. Initiate a cloud comparison initiative to compare the price of competing cloud alternatives
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
An enterprise is beginning its journey to ITaaS. An assessment of their current environment has already been
completed. It has been determined that a change made — even to a small part of the infrastructure — requires the entire
monolith to be rebuilt and deployed. As a cloud architect, what would you use to redesign the monolith to resolve this
issue?
A. Highly modular, a component-based suite of services
B. Tightly coupled, services architectural style
C. Tightly integrated, open architectural style
D. Highly modular, monolithic architectural style
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
An organization is deploying services in a private cloud. Consumers are calling IT because they are seeing performance
issues within the deployed services. How should IT troubleshoot and identify these performance issues?
A. Cloud administrator uses the monitoring tools
B. Service manager uses the monitoring tools
C. Cloud architect uses the metering tools
D. Cloud administrator uses the metering tools
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
What is the expected difference between two source address persistence profiles if profile A has a mask of
255.255.255.0 and profile B has a mask of 255.255.0.0?
A. Profile A will have more clients matching existing persistence records.
B. There are no detectable differences.
C. Profile B has a greater potential number of persistence records.
D. Profile B will have fewer persistence records for the sane client base.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
When can a single virtual server be associated with multiple profiles?
A. Never. Each virtual server has a maximum of one profile.
B. Often. Profiles work on different layers and combining profiles is common.
C. Rarely. One combination, using both the TCP and HTTP profile does occur, but it is the exception.
D. Unlimited. Profiles can work together in any combination to ensure that all traffic types are supported in a given
virtual server.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is NOT a logging option within an APM access control entry?
A. Packet
B. Verbose
C. Nominal
D. Summary
E. None
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
To share device information with F5 technical support, a customer must either verbally share the information over the
phone or copy and send the information in an Email.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 5
A site has six members in a pool. All of the servers have been designed, built, and configured with the same
applications. It is known that each client\\’s interactions vary significantly and can affect the performance of the servers.
If traffic should be sent to all members on a regular basis, which load balancing mode is most effective if the goal is to
maintain a relatively even load across all servers.
A. Ratio
B. Priority
C. Observed
D. Round Robin
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
How does the ARX eliminate the disruption caused by re-provisioning storage?
A. By identifying data that has not been modified and moving it to a secondary tier.
B. By reducing the time necessary to run a complete backup.
C. By allowing system administrators to apply policy to specific types data.
D. By automating capacity balancing and allowing seamless introduction of file systems into the environment after the
ARX is installed.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 7
ASM\\’s Web Scraping protection:
A. Is simple to configure
B. Cannot accommodate good scrapers
C. Will protect the site by blocking all requests
D. Is difficult to configure
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
An LTM object represents a downstream server that hosts a secure Web site and contains the IP address and port
combination 192.168.9.250:443. What is this object?
A. Self IP
B. Virtual Server
C. Pool
D. Node
E. Pool Member
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 9
Which of the following methods of protection is not available within the Protocol Security Manager for HTTP traffic?
A. Data guard
B. Attack signatures
C. Evasion techniques
D. File type enforcement
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
When an administrator creates a new access policy in the Visual Policy Editor, which three options are included by
default? (Choose three.)
A. A fallback option
B. An Allow Ad box
C. A Deny End box
D. An empty Resource Assign item
E. A Start box
F. A Block All option
Correct Answer: ACE

 

QUESTION 11
IP Enforcer blocks IP addresses that have repeatedly and regularly attacked the site.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
By default, how frequently are log files rotated?
A. hourly
B. daily
C. weekly
D. There is no default; the administrator sets the frequency.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
A monitor has been defined using the HTTP monitor template. The send and receive strings were customized, but all
other settings were left at their defaults. Which resources can the monitor be assigned to?
A. only specific pool members
B. most virtual severs
C. most nodes
D. most pools
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Is this the purpose of Docker Content Trust?
Solution: Enable mutual TLS between the Docker client and server.
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
In Docker Trusted Registry, is this how a user can prevent an image, such as \\’nginx:latest\\’, from being overwritten by
another user with push access to the repository? Solution: Use the DTR web Ul to make all tags in the repository
immutable.
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
Which of the following modes can be used for service discovery of a Docker swarm service (Pick 2 correct answers)
A. Virtual IP (VIP) with –endpoint-mode vip
B. Overlay with –endpoint-mode overlay
C. DNS Round-Robin with –endpoint-mode dnsrr
D. Ingress with –endpoint-mode ingress
E. Network Address Translation(NAT) with –endpoint-mode nat
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 4
Which set of commands can identify the publishd port(s) for a container? (Choose 1.)
A. \\’docker port inspect\\’, \\’docker container inspect\\’
B. \\’docker container inspect\\’, docker port\\’
C. \\’docker info\\’,\\’docker network inspect\\’
D. \\’docker network inspect\\’,\\’docker port\\’
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 5
Are these conditions sufficient for Kubernetes to dynamically provision a persistentVolume, assuming there are no
limitations on the amount and type of available external storage? Solution: A default provisioner is specified, and
subsequently a persistentVolumeClaim is created.
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6
Will this command list all nodes in a swarm cluster from the command line? Solution: `docker Is -a\\’
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 7
A users attempts to set the system time from inside a Docker container are unsuccessful. Could this be blocking this
operation? Solution: Linux capabilities
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
Which of these swarm manager configurations will cause the cluster to be in a lost quorum state?
A. 4 managers of which 2 are healthy
B. 1 manager of which 1 is healthy
C. 3 managers of which 2 are healthy
D. 5 managers of which 3 are healthy
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
Two development teams in your organization use Kubernetes and want to deploy their applications while ensuring that
Kubernetes-specific resources, such as secrets, are grouped together for each application.
Is this a way to accomplish this?
Solution: Add all the resources to the default namespace.
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
Which of the following commands wifi automatically create a volume when a container is started?
A. \\’docker container run –name nginxtest –volumes=/app nginx\\’
B. \\’docker container run –name nginxtest -v /app:mount nginx\\’
C. \\’docker container run –name nginxtest –volumes myvol:/app:new nginx\\’
D. \\’docker container run –name nginxtest -v myvol:/app nginx\\’
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
Which of the following is supported by control groups?
A. Manage certificates
B. Collect net
C. Limit CPU usage within a container
D. Isolate processes in a container
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
Seven managers are in a swarm cluster.
Is this how should they be distributed across three datacenters or availability zones?
Solution: 5-1-1
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
Will this command display a list of volumes for a specific container? Solution: \\’docker container inspect nginx\\’
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

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Candidates for this exam are Teamwork Administrators who are responsible for configuring, deploying and managing Office 365 and Azure workloads that focus on efficient and effective collaboration and adoption. Teamwork Administrators manage apps, services, and supporting infrastructure to meet business requirements. The Teamwork Administrator must be able to deploy, manage, migrate, and secure SharePoint (online, on-premises, and hybrid), OneDrive, and Teams.

The Teamwork Administrator is involved with decisions regarding governance and works with other Administrators to implement many of the decisions made by governance bodies. The Teamwork Administrator collaborates with the Messaging Administrator to configure options and security related to email tasks, the Voice Administrator to integrate voice capabilities in organizations, and the Security Administrator to ensure end-to-end security.

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Latest updates Microsoft MS-301 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
You have a SharePoint Server farm and a Microsoft Exchange Server organization. SharePoint Server crawls Exchange
Server content.
You create a new result source that uses the Exchange Server protocol.
You need to ensure that users can search the Exchange Server content.
What should you create?
A. a custom search result type
B. an additional index partition
C. a Search Center
D. an eDiscovery Center
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sharepoint/search/configure-result-sources-for-search

QUESTION 2
You have a SharePoint Server farm.
You have several document libraries that contain AutoCAD files.
You discover that search results never return any of the AutoCAD files.
You need to crawl the AutoCAD files.
Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Set-SPEnterpriseSearchFileFormatState
B. New-SPEnterpriseSearchfileFormat
C. Set-EnterpriseSearchResultItemType
D. Add-FASTSearchResource
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than once correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a SharePoint Server farm.
You create an external content type named ECT1 for a Microsoft SQL Server database.
You implement cloud hybrid search.
You create a Line of Business Data content source and run a full crawl.
Users in SharePoint Online report that the search results do not contain any data from ECT1.
You need to ensure that searches can return data from ECT1.
Solution: You grant the Default content access account Read permissions to the Central Administration web
application.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You have a SharePoint Server farm.
You create a web application that has a URL of https://portal.contoso.com and a root site collection.
You need to ensure that site collection administrators can create new site collections directly from the root site. The new
sites must use the modern user interface.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:lead4pass ms-301 exam question q4

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lead4pass ms-301 exam question q4-1

QUESTION 5
Your company has a SharePoint Server farm. All servers are virtualized on a Hyper-V host. The company has a single
data center.
You need to design a disaster recovery solution. The solution must meet the following requirements:
If the data center fails, SharePoint Server services must be recoverable within 24 hours.
Up to one hour of data can be lost.
Costs must be minimized during normal operations.
Which technology best meets the requirements? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal.
A. Hyper-V synchronous replication
B. the OneDrive sync client
C. the SharePoint Migration Tool
D. Azure Site Recovery
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
You are planning the implementation of a SharePoint hybrid environment that will contain the following workloads:
Workload1: An external list exposing data from a public OData service endpoint.
Workload2: An external list exposing data from a Microsoft Azure SQL database.
Workload3: A site that contains a sandbox solution.
Workload4: A Microsoft Flow workload.
Which workload can run only in the SharePoint Server farm and which workload can run only in SharePoint Online? To
answer, drag the appropriate workloads to the correct environments. Each workload may be used once, more than
once,
or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:lead4pass ms-301 exam question q6

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-301 exam question q6-1

QUESTION 7
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than once correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a SharePoint Server farm.
You configure the farm to support custom tiles, and you add an item to the custom tiles list.
You discover that the new item appears at the bottom of the list in the app launcher.
You need to ensure that the new item appears first on the list.
Solution: You run the Set-SPWebApplication cmdlet and specify the -AssignmentCollection parameter.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
You have a SharePoint hybrid environment.
When you run a search on-premises, you do not see any results from SharePoint Online on the results page.
You need to ensure that SharePoint Online results appear on the search results page along with the results from on-
premises SharePoint Server.
Which two objects should you create? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. a search results page in on-premises SharePoint Server
B. a result source in on-premises SharePoint Server
C. a query rule in on-premises SharePoint Server
D. a search results page in SharePoint Online
E. a result source in SharePoint Online
F. a query rule in SharePoint Online
Correct Answer: BC
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sharepoint/hybrid/display-hybrid-federated-search-results-in-sharepoint-server

QUESTION 9
You have a SharePoint Server farm.
You have the following three types of document libraries: expense reports, purchase orders, and invoices. Each
document in the libraries has an associated project code and cost center.
You need to ensure that when users check in expense reports, purchase orders, and invoices, the documents are
associated to a project code and a cost center. The project code and cost center must be in a consistent format across
all the
document libraries. The solution must minimize administrative effort.
What should you include in the solution?
A. managed properties
B. site content types
C. site columns
D. site templates
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You have a SharePoint Server farm and a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You plan to deploy the On-premises data gateway.
Which three cloud services can use the gateway to access SharePoint data? Each correct answer presents a complete
solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Microsoft StaffHub
B. Microsoft PowerApps
C. Microsoft Power BI
D. Microsoft Planner
E. Microsoft Flow
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 11
You have a SharePoint Server farm.
You are troubleshooting Kerberos authentication for the farm.
You need to view the Kerberos tickets issued to the server.
What should you run?
A. the klist.exe command
B. the stsadm.exe command
C. the Get-SPAuthenticationRealm cmdlet
D. the Get-SPAppAcquisitionConfiguration cmdlet
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
You have SharePoint Server farm and a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You use Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) Connect to sync accounts.
You have a file server that contains a file named File1. File1 contains the permissions shown in the following table. lead4pass ms-301 exam question q12

You migrate the share that contains File1 to SharePoint Online by using the SharePoint Migration Tool.
Which permission does each user have to File1 in SharePoint Online? To answer, drag the appropriate permissions to
the correct users. Each permission may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar
between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

lead4pass ms-301 exam question q12-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-301 exam question q12-2

QUESTION 13
You need to deploy hybrid OneDrive for Business to all the remaining users.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
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Free ECCouncil 312-50V10 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Internet Protocol Security IPSec is actually a suite of protocols. Each protocol within the suite provides different
functionality. Collective IPSec does everything except.
A. Work at the Data Link Layer
B. Protect the payload and the headers
C. Encrypt
D. Authenticate
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
It is a regulation that has a set of guidelines, which should be adhered to by anyone who handles any electronic medical
data. These guidelines stipulate that all medical practices must ensure that all necessary measures are in place while
saving, accessing, and sharing any electronic medical data to keep patient data secure.
Which of the following regulations best matches the description?
A. FISMA
B. ISO/IEC 27002
C. HIPAA
D. COBIT
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What attack is used to crack passwords by using a precomputed table of hashed passwords?
A. Brute Force Attack
B. Rainbow Table Attack
C. Dictionary Attack
D. Hybrid Attack
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
The collection of potentially actionable, overt, and publicly available information is known as
A. Open-source intelligence
B. Human intelligence
C. Social intelligence
D. Real intelligence
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
You are the Network Admin, and you get a compliant that some of the websites are no longer accessible. You try to ping
the servers and find them to be reachable. Then you type the IP address and then you try on the browser, and find it to
be accessible. But they are not accessible when you try using the URL.
What may be the problem?
A. Traffic is Blocked on UDP Port 53
B. Traffic is Blocked on UDP Port 80
C. Traffic is Blocked on UDP Port 54
D. Traffic is Blocked on UDP Port 80
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
An attacker scans a host with the below command. Which three flags are set? (Choose three.)
#nmap ?X host.domain.com
A. This is ACK scan. ACK flag is set
B. This is Xmas scan. SYN and ACK flags are set
C. This is Xmas scan. URG, PUSH and FIN are set
D. This is SYN scan. SYN flag is set
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
What is the difference between the AES and RSA algorithms?
A. Both are symmetric algorithms, but AES uses 256-bit keys
B. AES is asymmetric, which is used to create a public/private key pair; RSA is symmetric, which is used to encrypt
data
C. Both are asymmetric algorithms, but RSA uses 1024-bit keys
D. RSA is asymmetric, which is used to create a public/private key pair; AES is symmetric, which is used to encrypt
data
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Alice encrypts her data using her public key PK and stores the encrypted data in the cloud. Which of the following attack
scenarios will compromise the privacy of her data?
A. None of these scenarios compromise the privacy of Alice\\’s data
B. Agent Andrew subpoenas Alice, forcing her to reveal her private key. However, the cloud server successfully resists
Andrew\\’s attempt to access the stored data
C. Hacker Harry breaks into the cloud server and steals the encrypted data
D. Alice also stores her private key in the cloud, and Harry breaks into the cloud server as before
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Security Policy is a definition of what it means to be secure for a system, organization or other entity. For Information
Technologies, there are sub-policies like Computer Security Policy, Information Protection Policy, Information Security
Policy, network Security Policy, Physical Security Policy, Remote Access Policy, and User Account Policy.
What is the main theme of the sub-policies for Information Technologies?
A. Availability, Non-repudiation, Confidentiality
B. Authenticity, Integrity, Non-repudiation
C. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
D. Authenticity, Confidentiality, Integrity
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Based on the below log, which of the following sentences are true?
Mar 1, 2016, 7:33:28 AM 10.240.250.23 ?54373 10.249.253.15 ?22 tcp_ip
A. SSH communications are encrypted it\\’s impossible to know who is the client or the server
B. Application is FTP and 10.240.250.23 is the client and 10.249.253.15 is the server
C. Application is SSH and 10.240.250.23 is the client and 10.249.253.15 is the server
D. Application is SSH and 10.240.250.23 is the server and 10.249.253.15 is the server
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
The company ABC recently contracted a new accountant. The accountant will be working with the financial statements.
Those financial statements need to be approved by the CFO and then they will be sent to the accountant but the CFO is
worried because he wants to be sure that the information sent to the accountant was not modified once he approved it.
What is the following options can be useful to ensure the integrity of the data?
A. The CFO can use a hash algorithm in the document once he approved the financial statements
B. The CFO can use an excel file with a password
C. The financial statements can be sent twice, one by email and the other delivered in USB and the accountant can
compare both to be sure is the same document
D. The document can be sent to the accountant using an exclusive USB for that document
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Sophia travels a lot and worries that her laptop containing confidential documents might be stolen. What is the best
protection that will work for her?
A. Full Disk encryption
B. BIOS password
C. Hidden folders
D. Password protected files
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
What mechanism in Windows prevents a user from accidentally executing a potentially malicious batch (.bat) or
PowerShell (.ps1) script?
A. User Access Control (UAC)
B. Data Execution Prevention (DEP)
C. Address Space Layout Randomization (ASLR)
D. Windows firewall
Correct Answer: B

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Latest Citrix 1Y0-204 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to configure StoreFront to allow external users access to internal resources. The
external users will authenticate on StoreFront. Which StoreFront authentication method can the administrator
configure?
A. Smart card
B. Pass-through from NetScaler Gateway
C. HTTP Basic
D. Username and password
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/storefront/current-release/plan/user-authentication.html

QUESTION 2
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is required to maximize the usage of the Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops Site by
enabling users to access the Site from external devices and reducing the cost and the effort required to maintain the
infrastructure. The desktops for the users are provisioned using Citrix Provisioning.
Which set of resources will enable the administrator to achieve the objective?
A. Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops service, Citrix Gateway service, on-premises resources
B. Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops service, Citrix Gateway, public cloud
C. Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops service, Citrix Gateway, on-premises resources
D. Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops service, Citrix Gateway service, public cloud
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator has executed the following command:lead4pass 1y0-204 exam question q3

What will be the outcome of this configuration?
A. The users trying to access HTTP://SERVER.CITRIX.LAB will NOT be connected to the Vserver MYVPN_http.
B. The users trying to access HTTP://SERVER.CITRIX.LAB will be connected to the Vserver MYVPN_http.
C. The users trying to access http://server.citrix.lab will be connected to CS Vserver Vserver-CS-1.
D. The users trying to access HTTP://SERVER.CITRIX.LAB will be connected to CS Vserver Vserver-CS-1.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Scenario: A Ctrix Administrator currently manages a Citrix ADC environment in a retail company that is growing quickly
and may soon double its volume of business. Currently, a Citrix ADC MPX 5550, which handles web and SSL
transactions, is in place, but is close to full capacity. Due to the forecasted growth increase, the administrator needs to
find a cost effective solution.
What can the administrator recommend to management in order to cost effectively handle the growth?
A. Another MPX 5550 appliance
B. Performance hardware upgrade to Citrix ADC SDX 14100
C. Perform license upgrade to Citrix ADC MPX 5650
D. Perform hardware upgrade to Citrix ADC MPX 8005
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
In a Global Server Load Balancing (GSLB) Active/Active environment, the connection proxy is used as the site
persistence method. What is used to source the traffic when connection is proxied?
A. Client source IP
B. LDNS IP Address
C. Virtual IP (VIP)
D. Subnet IP (SNIP)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator created an SSL virtual server using only the following commands:lead4pass 1y0-204 exam question q6

The SSL virtual server is currently in a DOWN state.
What could be the reason the SSL virtual server is in a down state?
A. The SSL services are NOT on the 10.102.29.X network.
B. SSLv3 is disabled.
C. The virtual server SSL port is NOT set to port 443.
D. The SSL Certificate is NOT bound to the virtual server.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
A Citrix Administrator needs to block access to multiple URLs for security reasons.
Which configuration should the administrator use to accomplish this requirement?lead4pass 1y0-204 exam question q7

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
A user calls the help desk and states that launching a pooled random desktop takes as long as five minutes. Which
Citrix Director report can a Citrix Administrator review to find out what might be causing the delay?
A. Resource Utilization
B. Connection Failures
C. Logon Performance
D. Load Evaluators
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which tool should a Citrix Administrator use when a user reports “event ID 1022: The Citrix Desktop Service Failed to
register with any controller”?
A. HDX Monitor
B. VDA Cleanup Utility
C. Citrix Scout
D. Citrix Health Assistant
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://support.citrix.com/article/CTX133769
QUESTION 10
A Citrix Administrator is in the process of installing Citrix Cloud Connector, but the installation fails. What could be
causing the Citrix Cloud Connector installation to fail on the machine?
A. It is in sync with UTC time instead of local time.
B. Enhanced Security Configuration (ESC) is set to \\’off\\’.
C. It cannot run on a machine template cloned across multiple machines.
D. It is NOT joined to the domain.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is configuring a Citrix ADC high availability (HA) pair with an existing Primary Citrix ADC
with all resources configured. The administrator added the Secondary Citrix ADC in high availability and found that the
configuration on the existing primary was removed. It is now the Secondary Citrix ADC in the HA pair.
Which two configurations could the administrator have made to prevent this from happening? (Choose two.)
A. Enable HA monitoring on all the interfaces of the SECONDARY device.
B. Set the Secondary Citrix ADC to STAY SECONDARY in the Configure HA Node settings.
C. Set the Primary Citrix ADC to STAY PRIMARY in the Configure HA Node settings.
D. Enable HA monitoring on all the interfaces of the PRIMARY device.
Correct Answer: CD
Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/ja-jp/netscaler/11/system/high-availability-introduction/forcing-the-primary-node-stayprimary.html

QUESTION 12
For which three components can Citrix Director capture utilization statistics? (Choose three.)
A. CPU
B. IOPS
C. Disk space
D. Network
E. Memory
Correct Answer: ABE
Reference: https://www.citrix.com/blogs/2016/06/13/citrix-director-cpu-memory-usage-and-process-information/

QUESTION 13
What must a Citrix Administrator do to encrypt XML traffic between StoreFront and the Delivery Controllers?
A. Install a private server certificate on each StoreFront server and then add a new Internet Information Services (IIS)
binding for HTTPS.
B. Install a private server certificate on each Delivery Controller and bind the certificates to port 443.
C. Install a private certificate on each Delivery Controller and StoreFront server. Restart each server to force XML
communication to be encrypted.
D. Install a private server certificate on each StoreFront server. Open the StoreFront console and use the https:// prefix
with the base URL.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.jgspiers.com/securing-ddc-xml-broker-communication-over-https/

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Latest updates Alcatel-Lucent 4A0-100 exam practice questions(1-10)

QUESTION 1
What is the purpose of the Data Link Layer in the OSI model?
A. The Data Link Layer is responsible for encapsulating the packet into a frame for transmission on the transmission
media.
B. The Data Link Layer is responsible for encapsulating the packet into an IP header and routing the packet.
C. The Data Link Layer is responsible for formatting the packet for applications such as JPEG format.
D. The Data Link Layer is responsible for timing of the signals on the transmission media
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A set of tasks that move a packet from its entry into an IP network to its exit from the IP network. This describes:
A. IP routing.
B. IP protocol.
C. IP encapsulation.
D. IP tunneling.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
What is the purpose of the source and destination ports in the TCP header?
A. These ports identify the physical location of the sender and the receiver on the IP router.
B. These ports are used as addresses to communicate with the IP layer.
C. TCP does not use source or destination ports.
D. These ports are used as an address to identify the upper layer application using the TCP connection.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
What distance is supported using CAT-5 cabling for 10/100/1000 TX?
A. 100 m.
B. 500 m.
C. 1 Km.
D. 10 Km.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
The sequence numbers are used by TCP to ensure that the data receive is provided to the application in the correct
order.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
What is the sequence of messages sent by a host when it attempts to ping a destination for which it has no Address
Resolution Protocol (ARP) cache entry?
A. ICMP echo request, ARP request, ARP reply, ICMP echo reply.
B. ARP request, ARP reply, ICMP echo request, ICMP echo reply.
C. ICMP echo request, ICMP echo reply, ARP request, ARP reply.
D. ICMP echo request, ARP reply, ARP request, ICMP echo reply.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Based on the network diagram, (click on exhibit) what is the command to use on CR1 to setup a default static route to
R1?lead4pass 4a0-100 exam question q7

A. config router static-route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 10.2.3.2
B. config router static-route 0.0.0.0 next-hop 10.2.3.2
C. config router static-route 10.2.3.2 next-hop 0.0.0.0/0
D. config router default-route 10.2.3.2
E. config router static-route 0.0.0.0 next-hop 192.168.2.0
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
A 24 port Ethernet switch is configured with VLAN 100 on ports 1 – 8, VLAN 200 on ports 9 – 16 and VLAN 300 on ports
17 – 24.
Which of the following describes the behavior of the switch when a broadcast frame is received on port 1?
A. The switch will discard the broadcast frame because there is no specific destination address.
B. The switch will flood the broadcast frame on all ports on which the switch has seen frames from attached devices
C. The switch will flood the broadcast frame on ports 2 to 8.
D. The switch will flood the broadcast frame on all 24 ports.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which of the following Nokia 7750 SR components is NOT part of the data plane?
A. The Media Dependent Adapter (MDA)
B. The Input/ Output Module (IOM)
C. The Switch Fabric (SF)
D. The Control Processor Module (CPM)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which of the following statements BEST describes the purpose of UDP (Select two)?
A. Provide a connectionless delivery service.
B. Provide a connection oriented delivery service.
C. Provide an unreliable transmission service.
D. Provide a reliable transmission service.
Correct Answer: AC

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Latest updates Alcatel-Lucent 4A0-106 exam practice questions (1-10)

QUESTION 1
Which of the following terms also correctly describes a Layer 3 VPN?(Choose three)
A. VPRN
B. BGP/MPLS VPN
C. VLL
D. VPLS
E. IP-VPN
F. ePipe
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 2
Which of the following describes the goal of an Extranet VPRN?
A. To reduce the number of VPRN tunnels required.
B. To allow routes to be exchanged between all, or selected, sites of one VPRN, and all, or selected, sites of a second
VPRN.
C. To simplify the administration of multiple VPRNs.
D. To allow network access between the headquarter sites of each VPRN service and a shared VPRN service offered
by a third party.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
What is wrong with the configuration shown below?
A. The VPRN ID must be the same value as is used in the vrf-target command
B. The VPRN ID must be the same value as is used in the route-distinguisher command
C. The router-id command should not be used in this context
D. The vrf-target command is mandatory
E. There is nothing wrong with this configuration
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 4
What is the minimum number of Route Distinguishers required to implement an overlapping VPRN involving 5 different
customers?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 7
E. 10
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which of the following about eiBGP Load Balancing is FALSE?
A. ecmp and multipath must be configured within the VPRN instance.
B. The RD of the VPRN on the local PE must be different from the RD of the remote PEs.
C. Is enabled in the config>router>bgp context
D. Allows a PE router to load share traffic across routes learned from both direct CE-PE peerings and MP-BGP
peerings.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Click the exhibit.lead4pass 4a0-106 exam question q6

For the inter-AS model B VPRN, which of the following is TRUE when CE2 sends an IP packet to 192.168.1.1?
A. PE2 pushes one label on the IP packet and forwards it to ASBR2.
B. ASBR2 sends the IP packet with one label to ASBR1.
C. ASBR1 sends the IP packet with one label to PE1.
D. PE1 pops one label off the IP packet and forwards it to CE1.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Click the exhibit.lead4pass 4a0-106 exam question q7

A Carrier Supporting Carrier (CSC) VPRN is configured on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR for a customer carrier offering
VPRN services. Which of the following about this configuration is FALSE?
A. In the CSC VPRN, configure an eBGP session between CSC-PE and CSC-CE and use the “advertise-label vpn-ipv4”
CLI command to enable the advertisement of VPN-IPv4 routes.
B. When the customer carrier uses the same autonomous system number in various sites, use the “loop-detect off” CLI
command to disable the loop detection functionality on CSC-CE and PE routers.
C. On the CSC-PE routers, use the “carrier-carrier-vpn” CLI command to configure the VPRN service as CSC.
D. Configure an iBGP session between PE1 and PE2 and use the “family vpn-ipv4” CLI command to directly exchange
end-customer routes learned from CE1 and CE2.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which of the following about BGP Site of Origin (SoO) is FALSE?
A. The SoO attribute can be used to uniquely identify the site from which a PE learns routes.
B. Before a PE redistributes a VPN-IPv4 route, it can assign an SoO attribute to the route.
C. The SoO attribute can be used to prevent loops from a single site with multiple CE-PE connections.
D. The SoO attribute can be used as matching criteria when redistributing routes from the CE to the PE.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Click the exhibit.lead4pass 4a0-106 exam question q9

An Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR is to be configured as a PE router that supports VPRNs using LDP as the transport protocol.
Which of the following best describes this configuration?
A. This configuration is correct and complete.
B. This configuration is correct, except that the system interface must be added.
C. This configuration is correct, except that the interfaces facing the CE routers must be added.
D. MPLS configuration is not required.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
What are the two primary problems the service provider must consider when providing traditional Layer 3 VPN services
using only a single common routing table in the provider core? (Choose two)
A. Memory exhaustion in the provider core
B. Route leaking between the customer networks
C. CPU utilization for route processing
D. Unwanted packet forwarding between customer networks
Correct Answer: BD

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Latest updates Alcatel-Lucent 4A0-C01 exam practice questions (1-10)

QUESTION 1
What distinguishes a VPLS service from a VPWS service?
A. VPLS supports point-to-point connections.
B. VPLS supports multipoint-to-multipoint connections
C. VPLS supports a distributed service
D. VPLS supports a local service on a single node.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which of the following statements are FALSE regarding the VPN-IPv4 address family? (Choose 2)
A. When a PE router receives an IPv4 prefix from its local CE it creates a VPN-IPv4 prefix.
B. The route distinguisher (RD) is appended to the IPv4 prefix to form a 16 byte VPN-IPv4 prefix.
C. VPN-IPv4 allows BGP to distinguish multiple routes with the same prefixes originated from distinct customers
D. VPN-IPv4 addresses are only present within the service provider network.
E. In VPRN, data traffic is carried in VPN-IPv4 packets.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 3
Click on the exhibit.lead4pass 4A0-C01 exam question q3

192.168.3.1 is a loopback interface on router R2 and is distributed to OSPF area 0, but the ping fails from router R3.
Which of the following is a possible solution to the problem?
A. Add “stub no summaries” to the area 1 configuration on router R1.
B. Add the “originate-default-route” option in the area 1 configuration on router R1.
C. Add a default static route on router R3.
D. Include the system interface in the area 1 configuration on router R3.
E. Add a static route on router R3 to 192.168.3.1.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which of the following about an LSP protected with facility FRR is TRUE?
A. The LSP can use protection tunnels used by other LSPs.
B. The LSP can use facility and one-to-one FRR simultaneously.
C. The LSP is limited to link protection.
D. A detour protection tunnel is created for this LSP.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Click the exhibit.lead4pass 4A0-C01 exam question q5

Based on the output shown, what is the value of the service\\’s VC ID?
A. 2
B. 12
C. 30
D. 44
E. 100
F. The VC ID Cannot be determined from the output
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which of the following best describes an IES?
A. Layer 3 direct Internet access service.
B. Layer 2 point-to-point service.
C. Layer 2 multipoint-to-multipoint service.
D. Layer 3 IP multipoint-to-multipoint VPN service.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which of the following best describes how IS-IS routers exchange updates on an Ethernet interface?
A. IS-IS routers exchange updates by sending UDP packets to a multicast address.
B. IS-IS routers exchange updates using IP multicast packets.
C. IS-IS routers exchange updates using Ethernet multicast packets.
D. IS-IS routers exchange updates by sending packets to the subnet broadcast address.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
What is the significance of receiving a packet with the bottom MPLS label S bit set to 1?
A. It results in forwarding based on the next packet header.
B. It indicates that the label is the bottom of the MPLS label stack.
C. It indicates that the label is the top of the MPLS label stack.
D. Any LSR that receives an S bit set to 1 must discard the packet.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Router R2 advertises an OSPF summary route 10.10.10.0/24 into Area 1. Router R3 receives labels for individual FECs
10.10.10.2/32 and 10.10.10.4/32. These two FECs are installed in router R3\\’s LIB but not in the LFIB. What needs to
be done on router R3 to install these labels into its LFIB?lead4pass 4A0-C01 exam question q9

A. Disable route summarization on router R3.
B. Enable LDP aggregate prefix match.
C. Create an import policy to accept 10.10.10.2/32 and 10.10.10.4/32.
D. Disable LDP exact match on 10.10.10.2/32 and 10.10.10.4/32.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
In IS-IS database synchronization, each router compares each LSP described in the received CSNPs with the LSPs in
its own database. Which of the following actions is taken if the database contains a newer copy of the LSP?
A. The router sends a copy of the LSP from its database to its neighbor
B. The router sends a PSNP to its neighbor describing the LSP in its database.
C. The router updates its database with the LSP and floods a copy to its other neighbors.
D. The router sends a PSNP to its neighbor to request the LSP.
Correct Answer: A

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Latest Updates VMware 5V0-21.19 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1

An administrator is planning to deploy a new vSAN cluster with these requirements: -Physical adapters will share
capacity among several traffic types -Guaranteed bandwidth for vSAN during bandwidth contention -Enhanced security
and performance
What must be considered when configuring the new vSAN cluster?
A. Isolate traffic in a VLAN and utilize Network I/O Control
B. Utilize IOPS Limit rules in storage policies
C. Utilize jumbo frames with Network I/O Control
D. Implement vSphere I/O filters

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/6.7/com.vmware.vsphere.vsanplanning.doc/GUID-031F9637-EE29-4684-8644-7A93B9FD8D7B.html

QUESTION 2

Refer to the exhibit.

examinershub 5v0-21.19 q2

In a 2-node vSAN environment, a storage administrator has set up a vSAN storage policy.
When the stripe width is changed to three, what is the approximate component size of each replica marked in red?
A. 33GB
B. 50GB
C. 66GB
D. 100GB

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3

Which VM file type resides in the VM home namespace object on a vSAN datastore?
A. .vswp
B. .vmsn
C. .vmx
D. .vmem

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://vsan-essentials.gitbooks.io/vsan-6-2/content/chapter6.html

QUESTION 4

Which two features are available with the Cluster Quickstart wizard? (Choose two.)
A. Deploy a vSAN Witness appliance
B. Update storage controller drivers
C. Check for errors and inconsistencies
D. Setup lockdown mode for vSAN hosts
E. Perform a pre-check evaluation for data migration

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/6.7/com.vmware.vsphere.vsan-planning.doc/GUIDCF9767B6-B3F5-4787-9AF3-D661987AE525.html

QUESTION 5

vCenter Server is offline.
What are two ways to check the health of a vSAN cluster? (Choose two.)
A. ESXi system logs on vSAN datastore
B. vSphere Host Client
C. esxcli
D. HCIBench
E. esxtop

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMwarevSphere/6.5/com.vmware.vsphere.security.doc/GUID-6C181D08-6650-4AD1-92D1-AAFDA3A3E38C.html

QUESTION 6

What happens to a disk group during cache disk replacement?
A. goes offline
B. changes the on-disk format
C. becomes degraded
D. remains online

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7

How do vSAN stretch clusters protect against entire site failures?
A. asynchronous data transfer
B. online witness replacement
C. virtual machine data copied from the witness site
D. redundant components placed at both sites

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8

Which two vSAN Health Check items are included for vSphere Update Manager integration? (Choose two.)
A. vSAN build recommendation
B. vSAN object health
C. Online health connectivity
D. vSAN release catalog up-to-date
E. Performance of data collection

Correct Answer: AC

Reference: https://storagehub.vmware.com/t/vmware-vsan/vsan-6-7-update-1-technical-overview/vsphere-updatemanager-integration-7/

QUESTION 9

An administrator is designing a vSAN cluster for performance-driven workloads. Which design decision will provide more
I/O paths to the vSAN cluster?
A. add cache devices to disk groups
B. add compute-only nodes
C. add disk groups to each host
D. add CPUs to each host

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10

An administrator has discovered that space utilized by VMs does not decrease after deleting files and folders within the
VMs. The administrator needs to be able to reclaim this space. Which action could the administrator perform to
accomplish this task?
A. Enable Storage I/O Control.
B. Enable TRIM/UNMAP for the vSAN cluster.
C. Reboot the VM to recreate the swap file.
D. Assign a storage policy with thin provisioning.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11

What is the formula for determining the minimum number of vSAN hosts in a cluster necessary to support a Failures To
Tolerate (FTT) policy, where FTT=n?
A. n+1
B. n+2
C. 2n+1
D. 2n+2

Correct Answer: C

To tolerate n failures, you need 2n + 1 ESXi host in the vSAN cluster.
Reference: https://searchvmware.techtarget.com/answer/How-can-a-VM-storage-policy-improve-vSAN-clusterredundancy

QUESTION 12

A host in a vSAN cluster has the following VMware Compatibility Guide approved disks: -3 solid-state devices (SSD)
used for cache -12 magnetic drivers (HDD) used for capacity
Which two options are valid disk group configurations? (Choose two.)
A. 1 Disk Group with 2 SSD and 6 HDD
B. 1 Disk Group with 3 SSD and 12 HDD
C. 2 Disk Groups with 1 SSD and 6 HDD each
D. 3 Disk Groups with 1 SSD and 4 HDD each
E. 4 Disk Groups with 3 HDD each

Correct Answer: CD

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Latest Updates Veritas VCS-260 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1

Consider the following resource dependency tree.

examinershub vcs-260 q1

What is the correct order for Infoscale Availability to take the service group offline?
A. unmount file systems, deport disk group, stop volumes
B. deport disk groups, stop volumes, unmount file systems
C. unmount file systems, stop volumes, deport disk groups
D. stop volumes, unmount the file system, deport disk groups

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2

Which two capabilities can an administrator use to ensure availability within Docker Containers? (Choose two.)
A. provide HA to the application within the container for failover and app restart
B. provide provisioning of a new container when an application within the container fails
C. first restart the application within the container; if continued app failures, then provision a new container
D. provide HA to the container and move it between cluster nodes
E. provide provisioning of a new container when a container fails

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 3

Which log can an administrator review to determine why a resource failed to come online?
A. /var/VRTSvcs/log/vbs_state_notify.log
B. /var/VRTSvcs/log/ProcessOnOnly_A.log
C. /var/VRTSvcs/log/HostMonitor_A.log
D. /var/VRTSvcs/log/engine_A.log

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4

Refer to the exhibit.
On which node will the webs service group start if all nodes are powered on and come online at the same time?

examinershub VCS-260 q4

A. s4
B. s2
C. s1
D. s3

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5

An administrator wants to deploy a complex cluster configuration that will include over six nodes, I/O fencing, and
multiple private cluster interconnections.
Which method will help the administrator to implement rapid cluster deployment?
A. prepare a custom main.cf file using the sample template files and copy the file to all cluster nodes
B. generate a custom installation script using the Veritas Services and Operations Readiness Tools (SORT) website
C. prepare a custom response file in Veritas InfoScale Operations Manager (VIOM) and push it out to the new cluster
D. prepare a custom response file to build the new cluster configuration using /opt/VRTS/install/installer

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6

An administrator has started a cluster using hastart.
Which two commands should the administrator use to determine where each service group is running? (Choose two.)
A. hasys -display
B. hasys -state
C. hastatus -sum
D. haclus -status
E. hagrp -state

Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 7

An administrator wants to configure a service group FailOverPolicy where VCS selects a system based on the
forecasted available capacity for all systems in the SystemList attribute. Cluster attribute Statistics is set to Enabled.
Which FailOverPolicy must be selected?
A. Priority
B. Load
C. RoundRobin
D. BiggestAvailable

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://sort.veritas.com/public/documents/vie/7.0/solaris/productguides/html/vcs_admin/apds04.htm

QUESTION 8

An administrator has removed a node from the cluster. After system maintenance, the administrator notices that the
remaining cluster nodes will no longer form a cluster.
Which file will be used by the cluster at startup to determine the number of nodes required to form a cluster?
A. /etc/gabtab
B. /etc/llttab
C. /etc/vxfentab
D. /etc/llthosts

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9

Which action should an administrator take to avoid single points of failure when making an application highly available?
A. utilize cross-over network cables for heartbeats with multi-node clusters to withstand power outages
B. place application binaries on shared storage to reduce the chance of corruption
C. use host IP address for configuring and accessing the application from various clients
D. ensure multiple paths for data access so the application can continue if one path goes down

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10

As part of the consolidation efforts in a data center, the administrator decides to merge two two-node Veritas Cluster
Server (VCS) clusters into a four-node VCS cluster. The source and target clusters are on the same networks for LLT
communication. The administrator performs the following task as preparation for the merge while both clusters are still
running:
1.
modifies /etc/llttab files on the source cluster systems so the cluster ID is changed to the cluster ID of the target cluster
2.
modifies /etc/llthosts files on all systems to include the four nodes
3.
modifies /etc/gabtab files on all systems to require four systems to seed
4.
ensures the source cluster systems can see the fencing disks used by the target cluster
5.
copies the fencing configuration files from the target cluster systems to the source cluster systems
6.
adds the source cluster systems to the target cluster configuration using the hasys -add command
After the preparation is complete, the administrator stops the source cluster leaving the applications running, then stops
the whole communication stack and restarts it in the correct order. When the administrator attempts to start the cluster
again on the source cluster systems, they fail to join the four-node cluster.
Which preparation step that the administrator failed to perform is preventing the source cluster systems from joining the
four-node cluster?
A. The cluster needs to be manually seeded using grab config -x on the source cluster systems.
B. The target was main.cf file needs to be copied to the source cluster systems.
C. The service group configuration of the source cluster needs to be applied to the target cluster.
D. The cluster UUID from the target cluster needs to be copied to the source cluster.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11

Refer to the configuration: What will happen to the websg service group if the websg is online when all the systems in
the cluster are rebooted simultaneously, then all the systems finish booting and successfully join the cluster?

examinershub vcs-260 q11

A. It will unfreeze on reboot and start on sys1.
B. It will remain offline on all systems.
C. It will return to the state it was in prior to the reboot.
D. It will start on sys1 in a frozen state.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12

An administrator is evaluating the suitability of an application to be clustered which can failover to another node in the
cluster in an event of an application outage using Veritas InfoScale Availability. Which condition prevents the application
from being made highly available?
A. The application requires the use of solid-state drives for performance.
B. The cluster is NOT configured with a public low priority link.
C. Individual unique instances of the application cannot be monitored on the system the application is running.
D. After a crash, the automated clean-up takes at least one minute before the application can be restarted.

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a new XenApp and XenDesktop environment.
The architect has determined the applications and characteristics listed in the Exhibit during the application
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To which application category does Application1 belong, based on the information provided in the Exhibit?
A. Management Apps B. Common Apps
C. User Apps
D. Departmental Apps
Correct Answer: D

 

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Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a new XenApp and XenDesktop environment.
The architect has identified the User Layer requirements, as shown in the Exhibit.
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Additionally, management at the organization has identified the following general Access Layer requirements:
A multi-factor authentication method is required for any connections to the XenApp and XenDesktop environment
originating from outside the corporate network.
External connections must be authenticated by a NetScaler Gateway virtual server located in a DMZ network.
Internal connection traffic should NOT leave the internal corporate network.
Which authentication method should the architect use for the Accountants group?
A. Username and password
B. Federated Authentication Service
C. LDAP and RADIUS
D. Smart Card
E. Domain pass-through
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
Scenario: At a consumer goods company, a XenApp 6.5 environment is hosted on XenServer 6.5. The IT team is
migrating to XenApp and Desktop service on Citrix Cloud. Server OS machines will be hosted on-premises and Desktop
OS machines will be hosted on Microsoft Azure.
Which Citrix Smart Tool can reduce the cost of running XenApp and XenDesktop in public clouds?
A. Smart Check
B. Smart Migrate
C. Smart Build
D. Smart Scale
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 4
Scenario: While assessing the User Layer, a Citrix Architect finds that most of the internal users connect using
corporate-owned laptops, desktop devices, and thin clients. Many of these laptops and desktop devices are running
Windows 10, while the remainder of the machines are running Windows 7 and are in the process of being migrated to
Windows 10. Some users also connect using personal devices.
Currently, Citrix Receiver is manually installed on any endpoint device added to the company. All these devices use
Citrix Receiver version 4.8 and above. The IT team is planning to automate a process to update all the devices with the
latest version of Citrix Receiver and to automate another process for automatic installation of Citrix Receiver without
incurring extra costs and maintenance.
What should the architect recommend to upgrade Citrix Receivers for internal Windows endpoints?
A. The use of deployment tools for internal endpoints.
B. The deployment of Enterprise software.
C. Configure Receiver auto-updates through Citrix Cloud.
D. Edit the Web.config file and set upgradeAtLogin to True.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
Scenario: A Citrix Architect is designing an environment for a large company. The company has identified the following
user groups and requirements.
Product Managers – Typically, they work from inside the company network but are able to work from home. They need
to use a variety of standard productivity and
web-based SaaS applications.
Field Sales Engineers – They frequently work with mobile devices and tend to access the environment externally. They
need access to sales tools and the frontend of the customer database.
Web Developers – Internal and remote workers who use specialized hardware with a graphics card to handle resourceintensive applications.
Which FlexCast model should the architect assign to Web Developers?
A. VM Hosted Applications
B. Published Apps
C. Published Desktops
D. Hosted VDI
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6
Scenario: A Citrix Architect is investigating a recent change that is impacting system performance of the Provisioning
Services farm. However, no actions have been recorded in the Audit Trail.
Which two processes are preventing Provisioning Services auditing from recording the actions? (Choose two.)
A. The change was completed through the SCCM integration.
B. A task was performed using Provisioning Services PowerShell interface.
C. A task was performed using Management Command Line Interface (MCLI).
D. The Provisioning Services database was unavailable.
E. Auditing is disabled by default.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 7
Scenario: A Citrix Architect is performing a XenApp and XenDesktop design. During a discussion with the server
hardware team, two potential network configurations are proposed for the XenServer hosts.
Click the Exhibit button to view the network configurations.lead4pass 1y0-402 exam question q7

Which statement will support a decision to use Network Configuration 1?
A. It will ensure that virtual machine workloads do NOT interfere with each other.
B. It will provide greater security for all traffic types.
C. It will achieve a higher level of redundancy for the different traffic types.
D. It will reserve more bandwidth for virtual machine traffic.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 8
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to manage the disaster recovery process for a XenApp and XenDesktop environment.
The environment currently consists of an active datacenter which is typically accessed by used and a disaster recovery
(DR) datacenter which would be used in the event that a disaster impacts the primary datacenter. The overall
environment has been designed to actively replicate user data and application data from the primary datacenter
recovery datacenter using Microsoft DFS-R. Management has made it a proirity to minimize the loss of data when failing
over between datacenters. Due to an earthquake, the primary datacenter suffers a major outage that affects multiple
components. Management has decided to fail over the DR datacenter, and the architect has blocked access to the
primary datacenter to prevent new attempts to connect to the XenApp and XenDesktop Site there.
Which three actions must the architect perform to meet the company priorities before enabling access to the DR
datacenter? (Choose three.)
A. Complete data replication from the primary datacenter to the DR datacenter.
B. Monitor the automated failover process.
C. Transport backup data repositories to the DR datacanter.
D. Codifier data replication from the DR datacenter to the primary datacenter.
E. Drain existing sessions from the primary datacenter.
F. Evaluate the condition of the XenApp and XenDesktop environment in the primary datacenter.
Correct Answer: ABD

 

QUESTION 9
Scenario: IT management has decided which server hardware model to use for new XenApp and XenDesktop Sites and
needs guidance on sizing the Hardware
Layer.
Click the Exhibit to view the host details.lead4pass 1y0-402 exam question q9

A Citrix Architect is planning to install XenServer 7.x on this host.
How many vCPUs will be available to the XenServer host?
A. 8
B. 24
C. 32
D. 16
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 10
Scenario: IT management has decided which server hardware model to use for new XenApp and XenDesktop Sites and
needs guidance on sizing the Hardware Layer.
Click the Exhibit button to view the host details.lead4pass 1y0-402 exam question q10

A Citrix Architect is planning to install XenServer 7.x on this host which will be used to host only XenApp servers.
How many XenApp servers can the architect deploy on the host if the plan includes allotting each XenApp server 4
vCPUs, considering the over subscription ratio?
A. 12
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 11
Scenario: IT management has decided which server hardware model to use for new XenApp and XenDesktop Sites and
needs guidance on sizing the Hardware Layer.
Click the Exhibit button to view the host details.lead4pass 1y0-402 exam question q11

A Citrix Architect is planning to install XenServer 7.x on this host which will be used to host only XenApp servers.
How many vCPUs should be consumed to deploy XenApp servers with high performance, considering the oversubscription ratio?
A. 32
B. 24
C. 16
D. 48
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a new XenApp and XenDesktop environment. The customer previously
installed all applications locally on managed laptops and desktops but is willing to evaluate other application delivery
methods as part of the new deployment. The environment will be standardized on Windows 10 and Windows Server
2016 for the Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machines.
As part of an application analysis performed earlier in the project, the information shown in the Exhibit was collected
regarding one of the required applications.
Click the Exhibit button to view the information.lead4pass 1y0-402 exam question q12

Additionally, the customer has the following objectives:
Minimize the amount of additional infrastructure components.
Utilize thin clients as endpoints in order to reduce costs.
Users should NOT have direct access to the thin client operating system.
How should the architect install the application?
A. Directly on a VDA machine image and accessed through a virtual desktop session
B. On an Application Layer using Citrix App Layering and included in a layered image and accessed through a virtual
desktop session
C. Directly on endpoint devices and included in a virtual desktop session using the Local App Access feature
D. Stream it to a VDA machine using Microsoft App-V and accessed through a virtual desktop session
E. On an Application Layer using Citrix App Layering then presented to assigned users as an Elastic Layer during a
virtual desktop session
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 13
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a multi-datacenter XenApp and XenDesktop environment that will use
Provisioning Services (PVS) to manage Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machine images. Each datacenter will have a
separate Provisioning Services farm. During the design discussions, the architect creates a diagram to depict the way
vDisk files will be replicated between PVS farms, based on the available storage for the vDisk Stores.
Click the Exhibit button to view the diagram.lead4pass 1y0-402 exam question q13

Overall, the customer has identified the following objectives for the image replication process:
Minimize the administrative time required to replicate images between farms Must be usable by PVS farm
administrators based on native tools Minimize network traffic between datacenters
Which method should the architect use to replicate the vDisk files between datacenters?
A. SAN replication
B. Scheduled robocopy commands
C. Microsoft DFS-R
D. vDisk Replicator Tool
E. Manual copy
Correct Answer: D

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Latest ACSM 010-111 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Which of the following is the correct energy expenditure in METs associated with an exercise oxygen uptake of 28
ml?g-1?in-1?
A. 8
B. 10
C. 98
D. 112
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
Immediately following a chest and shoulder workout a 55-year-old male executive complains of a “dull ache” in the left
side of the chest that is aggravated by respiration. What would you consider is the source of the pain?
A. Cardiac
B. Muscular
C. Respiratory
D. Soreness
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
Which of the following exercises is contraindicated by the American College of Sports Medicine?
A. Pelvic tilt
B. Trunk extensions
C. Seated hip/trunk flexion
D. Unsupported hip/trunk flexion
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 4
Determining an organization\\’s guiding principles and goals is one element of ______.
A. strategic planning
B. risk management
C. leadership behaviors
D. facility management
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
As described by the American College of Sports Medicine, proper technique during the push-up test involves _____.
A. timing the number of push-ups performed in two minutes
B. requiring both female and male subjects to use the toes as the pivotal point of movement
C. allowing a slight (20? elbow flexion at the”;to”; of the movement
D. stopping the test when the subject strains forcibly
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6
Mitral valve prolapse is a condition which primarily affects the .
A. Sino-atrial node.
B. Bicuspid valve.
C. Tricuspid valve.
D. Descending aorta.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 7
Your new client is a 42 year old male who is a stock broker. His health history revealed the following: total cholesterol
185 mg/dL (4.7 mmol/L), HDL 32 mg/dL (0.8 mmol/L), LDL 110 mg/dL (2.8 mmol/L), resting blood pressure 138/80 mm
Hg, waist circumference 98 centimeters. Based on the client\\’s initial risk classification, what is the most appropriate
suggestion for the client regarding his exercise program?
A. Begin a low intensity exercise program until medical clearance is obtained.
B. Begin a vigorous exercise program immediately.
C. Refrain from all activity until medical clearance is obtained.
D. Require a maximal graded exercise test prior to starting the exercise program.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
What is the variability for any given age, when estimating a client\\’s age-predicted maximum heart rate?
A. 2 to 4 beats per minute
B. 10 to 12 beats per minute
C. 18 to 20 beats per minute
D. 22 to 24 beats per minute
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 9
Which of the following is a potential danger of long-term consumption of a high-protein diet?
A. Zinc becomes less absorbable
B. Calcium is drawn from the bones and excreted in the urine
C. Iron levels drop causing anemia
D. Sodium is lost in the sweat causing hyponatremia
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
Which of the following recommendations would you make to your client who plans on playing tennis on a very hot and
humid afternoon?
A. Consume 2 – 3 salt tablets per hour.
B. Consume 2 – 3 grams of protein per kilogram of body weight.
C. Consume fluids at temperatures of 15 to 22.2 degrees Celsius (59-72 degrees Fahrenheit).
D. Consume 5 – 6 grams of carbohydrates per kilogram of body weight.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
What does waist to hip ratio assess?
A. Frame size
B. Weight relative to height
C. Distribution of body weight
D. The amount of subcutaneous fat
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
What cardiovascular adaptations occur as a result of chronic aerobic exercise in a previously sedentary individual?
A. Resting heart rate and resting blood pressure are reduced.
B. Resting heart rate and maximal heart rate decline.
C. Maximal heart rate increases but maximal blood pressure stays the same.
D. Resting heart rate and resting blood pressure stay the same, but maximal heart rate and maximal blood pressure are
reduced.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
What is the correct order of the regions of the spinal column, from superior to inferior?
A. Cervical, lumbar, thoracic, sacral and coccyx.
B. Coccyx, sacral, lumbar, thoracic, and cervical.
C. Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, coccyx, and sacral.
D. Cervical, thoracic, lumbar,sacral, and coccyx.
Correct Answer: D

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