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QUESTION 1 Which is the day count/annual basis convention for SGD money market deposits? A. ACT/365 B. ACT/360 C. ACT/ACT D. 30E/360 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 You have taken 3-month (92 days) deposits of CAD 12,000,000.00 at 1.10% and CAD 6,000,000.00 at 1.04%. Minutes later, you quote 3-month CAD 1.09-14% to another bank. The other dealer takes the CAD 18,000,000.00 at your quoted price. What is your profit or loss on this deal? A. CAD 2,722.19 B. CAD 460.00 C. CAD 3,220.00 D. CAD 2,760.00 Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 Whose compliance rules, regulations and best practices should be followed in FX electronic trading? A. solely those of the electronic trading platforms vendors B. exclusively ACI\\’s Model Code Best Practices C. ACI\\’s Model Code Best Practices and ICMA\\’s Market Practice and Regulatory Policy D. the electronic trading platforms vendors\\’ and the ACIs Model Code Best Practices guidelines Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 What is the Overnight Index for GBP? A. SONIA B. STINA C. STONIA D. EONIA Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 You bought a EUR 8,000,000 6×9 FRA at 4.50%. The settlement rate is 3-month (90-day) EURIBOR, which is fixed at 3.50%. What is the settlement amount at maturity? A. You pay EUR 20,000.00 B. You receive EUR 20,000.00 C. You pay EUR 19,826.52 D. You receive EUR 19,826.52 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6 The major difference between futures and OTC instruments like FRAs and interest rate swaps is that futures are: A. Exchange-traded B. Guaranteed C. Standardised D. All of the above Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 Voice-brokers in spot FX are remunerated with: A. Commission paid by both parties at rates agreed beforehand B. A fee paid by the seller C. Bid/offer spread D. A share of the bid/offer spread Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 What does the Model Code say about netting? A. Market participants are strongly recommended to net bilateral transactions with counterparties where activity justifies it. B. Market participants should establish payments netting agreements with cross-border counterparties where activity justifies it. C. Market participants should establish legally viable bilateral netting agreements with counterparties where activity justifies it. D. Market participants should establish legally viable multilateral netting agreements where activity justifies it. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9 Which one of the following statements about “CLS rescinds” is correct? A. CLS settlement members may rescind instructions unilaterally provided that the rescind messages reach the CLS Bank before the 00:00 CET deadline. B. CLS settlement members may rescind instructions unilaterally provided that the rescind messages reach the CLS Bank before the 06:30 CET deadline. C. CLS settlement members may rescind instructions bilaterally only if the rescind messages reach the CLS Bank before the 00:00 CET deadline. D. CLS settlement members may rescind instructions bilaterally only if the rescind messages reach the CLS Bank after the 06:30 CET deadline. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 For which country\\’s currency is ZAR the ISO code? A. Saudi Arabia B. South Africa C. Zimbabwe D. Zambia Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11 Which of the following statements does not explain why banks accept some amount of interest rate risk? A. In their function as intermediaries, banks must necessarily accept some degree of interest rate risk. B. Banks incur interest rate risk to increase income C. Banks prefer c red it risk to market risk. D. If banks failed to take on interest rate risk they would not be able to meet the needs of their deposit and loan customers. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12 If manual trade capture methods are used, when should deals be recorded in systems used for this purpose? A. The same day they are dealt B. Promptly C. Within 24 hours of execution D. Within an hour of execution Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 If spot USD/HKD is 7.7600 and USD/SGD is 1.2350, what is SGD/HKD? A. 9.5836 B. 6.2834 C. 0.1591 D. 0.1043 Correct Answer: B
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How can I get authentic 500-651 exam questions? Examinershub shares the latest and effective Cisco 500-651 exam questions and answers, online practice tests, and the most authoritative Cisco exam experts update 500-651 exam questions throughout the year. Get the full 500-651 exam dumps selection: https://www.lead4pass.com/500-651.html (88 Q&As). Pass the exam with ease!
Latest updates Cisco 500-651 exam practice questions
QUESTION 1 How many web requests does Talos process per month? A. 1.5 million B. 100,000 C. 130 billion D. 130 million Correct Answer: C ASAS Cisco Security and Threat Landscape Module 1
QUESTION 2 Which Cisco solution falls under cloud security? A. Umbrella B. Identity Services Engine C. Firepower Threat Defense D. Cisco Defense Orchestrator Correct Answer: D ASAS Cisco Cloud Security SE ?Module 3
QUESTION 3 How is Cisco Security able to dynamically add IP addresses of known malware domains to its list of ports to detect and block? A. Reputation Filtering B. Layer-4 Monitoring C. Data Loss Prevention D. URL Filtering Correct Answer: B ASAS Security Web and Email SE Module 2
QUESTION 4 Which feature of ISE combines user identification with robust context sharing platform to prevent inappropriate access? A. Centralized policy management B. Context-aware access C. Patch management D. Platform exchange grid Correct Answer: B ASAS Policy and Access SE Module 5
QUESTION 5 Which are three main features of the Meraki MX discussed in Cloud App Security module? (Choose three) A. Cloud-Brokered VPN B. Posture Assessment C. Intrusion Prevention D. Email Security E. Profiling F. Next Generation Firewall Correct Answer: CEF
QUESTION 6 What is a key difference between Basic Data Loss Prevention and Advanced Data Loss Prevention? A. Providing content analysis B. Instant visibility C. Dynamic outbreak considerations D. Ability to filter in real-time Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 Which two Cisco products are a part of the “endpoints” threat-centric solution module? (Choose two.) A. Cisco Umbrella B. Cisco Defense Orchestrator C. Cisco VPN 3000 D. Cisco Stealthwatch E. Cisco AMP for Endpoints Correct Answer: AE ASAS Security Threat Centric Solutions – AM and SE Module
QUESTION 8 Which feature of Cisco ISE uses Cisco TrustSec Security Group Tags 10 edit networks dynamically rather than with VLANs? A. Device profiting and onboarding B. Role and device segmentation C. Guest Access D. Secure remote access Correct Answer: B ASAS Policy and Access SE Module 5
QUESTION 9 What is a main benefit of Cisco\\’s Clouldlock Data Loss Prevention feature? A. Reduces cost with easy implementation and installation B. Provides in depth cloud app analytics and tracking C. Allow organizations to retroactively identify malware within their environment D. Includes 70+ out of the box policies for enforcement, such as PCI, HIPAA, etc Correct Answer: D ASAS Cisco Cloud Security SE – Module 3
QUESTION 10 Which Cisco product included in the Endpoint threat-centric solution? A. Umbrella B. ASAv C. Meraki MX D. Cloudlock Correct Answer: A ASAS Security Threat Centric Solutions – AM and SE Module 7
QUESTION 11 Which license subscription terms are available for AMP licensing? A. 1 month 3 months 6 months B. 1 year. 5 years. 10 years C. 5 years 10 years 30 years D. 1 year. 3 years. 6 years Correct Answer: D ASA Security Advanced Threats SE Module 6
QUESTION 12 How does AMP\\’s device trajectory capabilities help address customer s issues? A. It determines the scope and cause of an outbreak and tracks suspicious files B. It searches for potential threats based on identified activities and behaviors C. It isolates suspicious files and runs them in a sandbox environment to determine their authenticity D. It analyses the data from suspicious files to provide a new level of threat intelligence Correct Answer: C ASAS Security Advanced Threats SE Module 6
QUESTION 13 Which are two features of Cisco FirePOWER NGFW? (Choose two.) A. Next generation IPS to detect intrusions and prevent threats B. URL filtering to restrict access to specific sites and sub-sites C. Data Loss Prevention D. Increased IT management needs Correct Answer: AB
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What is the best way to pass the Cisco 300-360 exam? (First: Exam practice test, Second: Lead4pass Cisco expert.) You can get free Cisco CCNP Wireless 300-360 exam practice test questions here. Or choose: https://www.lead4pass.com/ccnp-wireless.html .Study hard to pass the exam easily!
This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of identifying customer and application requirements, applying predictive wireless design principles and conducting site surveys needed to design and optimize Enterprise wireless networks.
Latest updates Cisco 300-360 exam practice questions
QUESTION 1 An engineer is determining powering requirements for a P2P wireless link using Cisco Aironet 1572EC access points. Which power method is valid for the access point? A. 802.3af Power over Ethernet B. Power over Cable C. Cisco Inline Power D. 802.3at Power over Ethernet Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 Which description of Cisco Centralized Key Management is true? A. It allows the wireless infrastructure to cache the credentials, which eliminates the need to conduct a full reauthentication when roaming. B. By caching their credentials, it helps clients save scanning time when looking for a new AP to join. C. It allows wireless clients to cache their credentials so that, while they are roaming, they don\\’t need to reauthenticate to the wireless infrastructure. D. It enables the controller to send directed roam requests to a client in situations when the controller can better service the client on a different AP than the one to which the client is associated. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 When a post-installation audit is performed using the Ekahau Survey tool, which two steps are associated with the passive portion of the audit? (Choose two.) A. Check to see if the signal levels on other access points that are heard on the same channel are at least 19 dBm weaker than the access point that you are next to B. Survey by SSID to ensure that smooth roaming is taking place C. Verify that the real-world network traffic (for example, physical data rate, packet loss, etc.) meets user requirements D. When you have completed the post-installation surveys, compare them to the surveys that were performed before the installation. They should look nearly identical E. Verify that user applications are running smoothly over the wireless network Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 4 The wireless team must configure a new voice SSID for optimized roaming across multiple WLCs with Cisco 7925 phones. Which two WLC settings accomplish this goal? (Choose two.) A. Configure AVC profiles on the SSID B. Configure mobility groups between WLCs C. Use AVC to tag traffic voice traffic as best effort D. Use Cisco Centralized Key Management for authentication E. Configure AP groups between WLCs Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 5 What is the result if a client radio is incapable of supporting all the 5 GHz channels you have deployed in the controller or APs? A. You may only be able to deploy 20 MHz-wide channels. B. This may result in the client having to roam more frequently to find a channel it supports. C. This may result in coverage holes in the network. D. You may only be able to deploy 40 MHz-wide channels. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6 If you are calibrating for 2.4 GHz and the site will not be using 802.11 and 802.11b data rates, what should be done to ensure an accurate calibration? A. Make sure that the access points have the unused rates disabled. B. Make sure that you are using an 802.11b client when calibrating. C. Make certain that there are no legacy clients when performing the calibration because they will disrupt the process. D. Make sure to use a client that supports both 802.11b/g and 802.11a. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 When designing and deploying an outdoor mesh network, what is the appropriate RF cell overlap? A. 10 percent B. 15 percent C. 20 percent D. 25 percent E. Application dependent Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 8 When designing a WLAN, AP placement is important. Which option describes how to rank the density of APs needed to support location services versus data and voice services? A. Data services have the lowest density of APs compared to location services, which has the highest density. B. Data services have a lower density of APs compared to location services, but more than voice. C. Voice services have the highest density of APs over location and data services. D. Voice and data services require a higher density of APs than location services. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 What is the Cisco-recommended cell overlap percentage for a typical RToWLAN network design? A. 5 to 10 B. at least 20 C. a maximum of 20 D. at least 50 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 A downstream packet that contains a DSCP value arrives at the WLC Ethernet interface from the wired source network. The WLC is configured for QoS WLAN 802.1p mapping. How does the WLC treat the CAPWAP QoS marking when leaving the controller interface for the respective AP and final wireless client destination? A. No outer CAPWAP or inner QoS tagging is applied. B. The outer CAPWAP CoS is marked and capped and the inner DSCP maintains the original marking. C. No outer CAPWAP QoS tag is applied, but the original DSCP is maintained inside CAPWAP. D. The outer CAPWAP DHCP is marked and capped without any inner DSCP value. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11 A corporation has a Cisco Unified Wireless Network that has been deployed for voice coverage. The wireless data rates have been tuned to mandatory rates of 18 Mbps and 36 Mbps. Some wireless clients have been experiencing drops streaming multicast video while moving throughout the building. What is the cause of the drop in video? A. Clients are maintaining a 12Mbps rate and cannot receive the stream at 18Mbps. B. Clients are not roaming due to coverage. This is causing the multicast data to drop due to the client re-associating often. C. Clients are roaming at lower data rates and are not maintaining 36Mbps connectivity. D. Clients are connected at 18Mbps; however, other clients are connecting at 12Mbps and are causing the multicast video to degrade. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12 An engineer is implementing Q0S for a new wireless voice network. Which two considerations should be identified first? (Choose two.) A. QoS marking B. policing C. QoS requirements D. data traffic usage E. traffic classification Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 13 What two factors could cause a post-deployment audit to show a high retransmission rate for the WLAN? (Choose two.) A. CRC errors B. Rate shifting C. CCX compatible clients D. High SNR values E. High RSSI values Correct Answer: AB
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Examinershub shares online exam exercise questions all year round! Microsoft System Center 70-703 exam “Administering Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager and Cloud Services Integration” https://www.lead4pass.com/70-703.html (152 Q&As). Continue to study and we provide an updated cisco 70-703 exam practice questions and answers. You can practice the test online!
This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.
Configure and Maintain a Configuration Manager Management Infrastructure (35-40%)
Manage Inventory by Using Configuration Manager (10-15%)
Manage Applications by Using Configuration Manager (15-20%)
Deploy and Maintain Operating Systems by using Configuration Manager (20-25%)
Extend the Management Scope of Configuration Manager (10-15%)
Who should take this exam?
Candidates for this exam are Enterprise Desktop Administrators who deploy, manage and maintain PCs, devices, and applications across medium, large, and enterprise organizations.
Candidates for this exam should have at least one or two years of experience managing and deploying PCs, devices, and applications by using System Center Configuration Manager and Microsoft Intune. Candidates should have a strong understanding of networking, Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS), Windows operating systems, and mobile device platforms. Candidates should also understand public key infrastructure (PKI) security, Windows PowerShell, and Windows Server roles and services.
Microsoft System Center 70-703 Exam Practice Questions
QUESTION 1 You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch). You need to collect detailed usage data from devices. The usage data must be retained for three years. What should you deploy? A. A Microsoft Operations Management Suite (OMS) connector B. Software update point switching C. Server groups D. A Data Warehouse service point. Correct Answer: D References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/core/servers/manage/data-warehouse
QUESTION 2 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You plan to deploy System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch) by using an initial pilot deployment. The pilot deployment will contain five computers that run Windows 10. You need to deploy the Configuration Manager client to the five computers only. Solution: You create a Group Policy object (GPO) that contains a WMI filter for the five computers. To the GPO, you add a startup script that runs ccmsetup.exe. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B Ccmsetup.exe is used to deploy the Configuration Manager client but WMI filtering is based on device types. We should use security filtering instead. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/core/clients/deploy/deploy-clients-to-windows-computers https://blogs.technet.microsoft.com/grouppolicy/2009/07/30/security-filtering-wmi-filtering-and-item-level-targeting-in-group-policy-preferences/
QUESTION 3 You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch). All client computers run Windows 7 and have the most recent updates installed. Configuration Manager and Microsoft Operations Manager Suite (OMS) are integrated. You plan to use Upgrade Readiness to identify which computers support Windows 10. You need to ensure that the computers report data to OMS. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. From Client Settings, configure a commercial ID key. B. Configure Asset Intelligence. C. From Client Settings, configure Windows telemetry. D. Configure a software inventory. E. Configure a hardware inventory. Correct Answer: AC References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/core/clients/manage/upgrade/upgrade-analytics https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/core/clients/manage/monitor-windows-analytics
QUESTION 4 You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch). Your company has a main office and a branch office. The branch office has five users. Some users use laptops and some use desktop computers. All the servers for the company are located in the main office. The branch office connects to the main office by using a VPN over a DSL connection to the main office. You need to minimize the bandwidth used to deploy updates to branch office clients over the VPN connection. The solution must minimize costs. A. a pull-distribution point B. a cloud management gateway C. BranchCache D. a cloud-based distribution point E. a software update point Correct Answer: C References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/core/plan-design/hierarchy/design-a-hierarchy-of-sites
QUESTION 5 You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch). You configure the environment for co-management. You need to install the Configuration Manager client on all computers that are enrolled in Microsoft Intune. Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Distribute the Configuration Manager client installation files to the cloud-based distribution point. B. From Intune, deploy an app that contains Cccmsetup.msi. C. From Configuration Manager, deploy a cloud-based distribution point. D. From Configuration Manager, enable site-wide client push installation. E. From Intune, deploy an app that contains Client.msi. Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 6 You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch). You have offices in Montreal and Seattle. Each office is configured as an Active Directory site. Objects in each office are part of a device collection. You need to deploy software to clients in the Montreal office from servers in the Montreal office only. What should you do? A. Configure a boundary group for the client assignment. B. Create a boundary for the Montreal office that uses Active Directory sites. C. Add a management point in the Montreal office. D. Create a user collection that contains the users in the Montreal office. Correct Answer: B Reference: https://www.systemcenterdudes.com/configure-sccm-2012-boundaries/
QUESTION 7 You have offices in the United Kingdom and Sweden. You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager that you use to manage the client computers in the offices. All the managed computers run Windows 10. The computers in the United Kingdom office use the English (United Kingdom) en-GB language pack. The computers in the Sweden office use the Swedish (Sweden) sv-SE language pack. You need to create a servicing plan for Windows 10 in Configuration Manager to update the computers to the latest version of Windows 10. The solution must meet the following requirements: Select and Place:
QUESTION 8 You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch) that contains a collection named Restricted. Restricted contains only client computers that run Windows 10. You need to ensure that only trusted executable files can run on the computers in the Restricted collection. What should you do? A. Deploy custom Client Device Settings. B. Create a Windows Defender Application Control (WDAC) policy. C. Modify the Default Client Settings. D. Create a device compliancy policy. Correct Answer: B References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/protect/deploy-use/use-device-guard-with-configuration-manager
QUESTION 9 You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch). Your company has offices in Paris and Boston. All client computers run Windows 7. You plan to migrate all the computers to Windows 10 by using task sequences in Configuration Manager. All the hard drives will be reformatted during the migration. You need to meet the following requirements: For the computers in the Boston office, the user data and settings must be retained. For the computers in the Paris office, users must be able to select which applications to install. What should you use in each office? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 10 You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch) that you use to manage devices on the corporate network. You need to ensure that you can deploy software to Configuration Manager clients on the Internet. What should you deploy? A. a cloud-based distribution point in Microsoft Azure and the Microsoft Operations Management Suite (OMS) connector B. a management point and a service connection point in a perimeter network. C. a cloud-based distribution point and a cloud management gateway in Microsoft Azure D. a cloud-based distribution point in Microsoft Azure and a Microsoft Intune subscription E. a distribution point and a management point on a perimeter network F. a management point on a perimeter network and a cloud management gateway in Microsoft Azure Correct Answer: B References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/core/clients/manage/plan-internet-based-client-management
QUESTION 11 You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch) that was implemented by a user named Admin1. Configuration Manager includes the administrative users shown in the following table:
You add a boot image named Boot1 to Configuration Manager. You set the security scope of Boot1 to Scope1. Which user can create a task sequence that uses Boot1? A. User2 B. User5 C. User7 D. User6 E. User8 Correct Answer: D References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/gg682108.aspx
QUESTION 12 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series. Start of repeated scenario. You work for a company named ADatum Corporation. The ADatum network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. You have a partner company named Contoso, Ltd. The Contoso network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. All the client computers at both companies run Windows 10. Each company has a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch). ADatum has sales and IT departments. ADatum has a collection for each department. Contoso has research, marketing, and human resources (HR) departments. Contoso has a collection for each department. ADatum purchases Contoso. You configure on-premises mobile device management (MDM) in adatum.com. You enroll the client computers in the IT department into on-premises MDM. You configure hybrid MDM in contoso.com. End of repeated scenario. You need to ensure that when the users at Contoso enroll into MDM, they accept the usage policy of Contoso. What should you do? A. From Microsoft Intune in the Microsoft Azure portal, click Device compliance and configure the Compliance policy settings. B. From the Configuration Manager console, open the Assets and Compliance workspace and configure the terms and conditions. C. From Microsoft Intune in the Microsoft Azure portal, click Device enrollment and configure the terms and conditions. D. From the Configuration manager console, open the Assets and Compliance workspace and configure a compliance policy. Correct Answer: B References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/mdm/deploy-use/terms-and-conditions
QUESTION 13 You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch). You configure hybrid mobile device management (MDM). You have a bring-your-own-device (BYOD) policy. Users self-enroll their mobile phones. You plan to deploy a line-of-business app named App01 to Apple iOS devices. App01 can access private company data. You need to ensure that a PIN is entered when the users open App1. What should you configure? A. an application management policy B. a compliance policy C. a configuration baseline D. Client Settings Correct Answer: A References: http://www.itprotoday.com/cloud-data-center/publish-corporate-applications-ios-using-configuration- manager-and-intune
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We share the latest exam dumps throughout the year to help you improve your skills and experience! The latest VMware VCP6-CMA 2V0-620 exam dumps, online exam Practice test to test your strength, VMware 2V0-620 “vSphere 6 Foundations Exam – VMware” in https://www.lead4pass.com/2v0-620.html Update the exam content throughout the year to ensure that all exam content is authentic and valid. 2V0-620 PDF Online download for easy learning.
Free test VMware VCP6-CMA 2V0-620 Exam questions and Answers
QUESTION 1 Which two Fibre Channel zoning options are supported with vSphere 6.x? (Choose two.) A. Single-Initiator B. Single-Initiator-Single-Target C. Multiple-Initiators-Single-Target D. Multiple-Initiators-Multiple-Targets Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 2 An administrator has configured an alarm to be notified when a virtual machine meets two conditions: high virtual CPU high active memory consumption The alarm is malfunctioning and triggering when either condition is met instead of both. What can be done to correct the issue? A. Edit the alarm and select Trigger if ALL of the following conditions are satisfied. B. Edit the alarm and select Trigger if ANY of the following conditions are satisfied. C. Create two separate alarms, one for CPU and one for memory. D. Delete the existing alarm and create a new event based alarm. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 An administrator is performing upgrades to ESXi 6.x from ESX 3.x and ESX 4.x hosts. What is true about this procedure? A. A direct, in-place upgrade can be performed only on ESX 4.1 and later hosts. B. ESX 3.x hosts can be upgraded, but require an upgrade to 4.x before 5.x. C. A direct, in-place upgrade can be performed only on ESX 4.5 and later hosts. D. A direct, in-place upgrade can be performed only on ESX 3.5 and later hosts. Correct Answer: B Explanation: You must upgrade version 3.x ESX and ESXi hosts to ESX or ESXi version 4.x before you can upgrade them to ESXi 5.1.x. See the vSphere 4.x upgrade documentation. Alternatively, you might find it simpler and more cost effective to do a fresh installation of ESXi 5.1.x.
QUESTION 4 An administrator would like to have vCenter take action any time a virtual machine is using over 90% of its available resources for five minutes or longer. Which three actions can be taken by vCenter Server in response to the trigger without running a script? (Choose three.) A. Power on a VM B. Reboot Guest on VM C. Increase Virtual Machine Memory D. Migrate a VM E. Increase Virtual Machine CPU Shares Correct Answer: ABD Explanation: Power on a VM, reboot guest and Migrate a VM will be the actions taken by vCenter Server in response to a trigger without needing a script.
QUESTION 5 After selecting an object in vRealize Operations, how can a user compare the badge values of related child objects? A. Use the Scoreboard tab B. Use the Relationship tab C. Use the Members tab D. Use the Overview tab Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 What are two reasons why a company would choose to use ESXi 6.x instead of using VMware Workstation 8? (Choose two.) A. The company needs to be able to assign existing physical disks to virtual machines. B. The company needs remote management of virtual machines C. The company needs support for virtual machines with up to sixteen vCPUs D. The company wants the lowest overhead possible for the virtual infrastructure. Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 7 Which two settings are required by the deployment wizard when installing the VMware vCenter Server Virtual Appliance (vCSA)? (Choose two.) A. Number of CPUs B. Datastore to install on C. Linked-mode D. Name of the vCenter server Correct Answer: BD Reference: http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-51/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.install.doc%2FGUID-25FCB A87-5D2F-4CB6-85D7-88899B4AC174.html
QUESTION 9 After installation of a host in your test environment, you need to move it to production. The only major change that needs to be made is that the hostname of the server needs to change. What are two ways that an administrator can change the host name without editing configuration files on the host directly? (Choose two.) A. Login to the Direct Console User Interface and change it from here. B. Edit the Default TCP/IP Configuration from the vSphere Web Client. C. Use the Ruby vSphere Client to send a script to the ESXi host that updates the hostname. D. Update the information in DNS and the ESXi host will automatically update with these changes. Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 10 You have just installed an ESXi 6.x Host. As part of your company security regulations, a security banner must be presented on the console of the host. How can this action be accomplished? A. Configure the Advanced Settings > Annotations screen of the ESXi host. B. This is configured from the Direct Console User Interface configuration menu. C. It is not possible to configure a security banner for the ESXi host. D. From vCenter Server, this setting is configured globally in the vCenter Server configuration. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 An administrator is attempting to enable Storage I/O Control on a datastore, but it is failing. What is the likely reason for this failure? A. The host is connected to a datastore is running on ESX 4.0. B. The host is connected to a Fibre Channel storage array. C. The datastore has multiple extents. D. The datastore is managed by a single vCenter Server. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 Which three traffic types are available services options when configuring a vmkernel port? (Choose three.) A. Provisioning Traffic B. Virtual Volumes Traffic C. vSphere Replication NFC Traffic D. Virtual SAN Traffic E. FCoE Traffic Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 13 When is it possible to place a VMFS5 datastore in maintenance mode? A. When it is a member of a Storage DRS cluster B. When it is a member of Virtual SAN cluster C. When it is a member of a multi-extent datastore D. When it is a member of a Virtual Volume Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14 An administrator is setting up vSphere Auto Deploy to deploy 25 ESXi 6.x hosts using the vCenter Server Virtual Appliance (vCSA). What would be considered best practices for Auto Deploy? (Choose three.) A. Enable vSphere HA on the cluster. B. Protect the vCenter server with Fault Tolerance. C. Install the Auto Deploy service on the VCSA. D. Include the vmware-fdm VIB in the image profile. E. Use PowerCLI to write a rule that assigns a custom image profile to the target hosts. Correct Answer: ADE Reference: http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-50/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.install.doc_50%2FGUID-980 D9E38-633E-4557-9144-AC422FA239C5.html
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QUESTION 1 Which two encryption keys does the host use when encrypting virtual machine files? (Choose two.) A. Public Key Infrastructure Encryption Key (PKI) B. Master Encryption Key (MEK) C. Data Encryption Key (DEK) D. Key Encryption Key (KEK) Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 2 Which two statements are true about Permanent Device Loss (PDL)? (Choose two.) A. All paths are shown as Dead for the affected device. B. The datastore cluster is incorrectly configured. C. The datastore on the affected device shown a yellow warning sign. D. The datastore on the affected device shows a red error sign. E. The operational state of the affected device changes to Lost Communication. Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 3 An administrator wants to enable VMware Fault Tolerance on a virtual machine. Which two vSphere features are supported with Fault Tolerance? (Choose two.) A. VM Component Protection B. vSphere HA C. Storage DRS D. Snapshots Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 4 Which three are supported upgrade processes for ESXi host? (Choose three.) A. using vSphere Auto Deploy B. using a TFTP server C. using Update Manager D. using an ESXCLI command E. installing from CIFS share Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 5 Which two storage technologies are supported for MSCS? (Choose two.) A. VAAI B. NFS C. iSCSI D. FC Correct Answer: CD https://kb.vmware.com/s/article/2147661?other.KM_Utility.getArticleLanguage=1andr=1andothe r.KM_Utility.getArticleData=1andother.KM_Utility.getArticle=1andui-comm-runtime-components- aura-components- siteforceqb.Quarterback.validateRoute=1andother.KM_Utility.getGUser=1
QUESTION 6 An administrator wants to upgrade ESXi 5.5 hosts to ESXi 6.5 using Update Manager. When performing a scan for baseline compliance, the host\\’s status is marked Compliant. Which has happened? A. Host must be version 6.0 in order to upgrade to 6.5. B. Host has some third-party software installed. C. Host has no upgrade baseline attached. D. Host hardware is not supported for upgrade. Correct Answer: C http://vmiss.net/2016/12/20/upgrading-esxi-using-vsphere-update-manager-6-5-on-the- vcenter-server-appliance/
QUESTION 7 An administrator discovers that virtual machine migrations with encrypted vMotion have failed. Which action can resolve this issue? A. Use vSphere Update Manager to upgrade all hosts to ESXi 6.5 B. Install a USB decryption dongle on all hosts in the cluster C. Disable Strict Lockdown mode D. Use esxcli to enable encrypted vMotion Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 An administrator has a large boot from SAN cluster and wants to ensure consistent configuration by using host profiles. What special considerations are required for boot from SAN hosts? A. Host profiles are incompatible with boot from SAN hosts. B. Change the “Device is shared clusterwide” setting to “false” in the host profile. C. Verify that the boot LUN is correctly identified as the boot device in the host profile. D. The boot from SAN device must report as a local device. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9 ESXi hosts with 10Gbps network cards are attached to a distributed switch. The administrator has upgraded to NIOC3 and wants to allow vMotion traffic to use as much bandwidth as possible but must ensure that other services always have sufficient bandwidth. How can this be done? A. Configure shares on the distributed switch for the vMotion traffic type. B. Configure limits on the distributed switch on the on vMotion traffic type. C. Associate vMotion traffic with a network resource pool and use CoS tagging. D. Set shares on user-defined network resource pool and associate it with vMotion traffic. Correct Answer: A From the Shares drop-down men, edit the share of the traffic in the overall flow through a physical adapter. Network I/O Control applies the configured shares when a physical adapter is saturated.
QUESTION 10 Which statement applies to the vSphere Replication appliance? A. Only one vSphere Replication appliance can be deployed per vCenter Server instance. B. VMware Tools in the vSphere Replication appliance can be upgraded. C. A single vSphere Replication appliance can manage a maximum of 4000 replications. D. vSphere Replication is available only with the vSphere Essentials Plus license. Correct Answer: A https://docs.vmware.com/en/vSphere-Replication/6.5/com.vmware.vsphere.replication- admin.doc/GUID- E114BAB8-F423-45D4-B029-91A5D551AC47.html
QUESTION 11 Which network is used by vSphere HA when VMware vSAN is enabled? A. VSAN network B. vMotion network C. Management network D. vSphere Replication network Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 Which two components are necessary for the first boot of a host using Auto Deploy? (Choose two.) A. Host Profiles B. Bulk licensing C. vSphere Authentication Proxy D. TFTP E. DHCP Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 13 When performing a vCenter Server 5.5 for Windows with Microsoft SQL Server Express database migration to vCenter Server Appliance 6.5, which will be the target database? A. Microsoft SQL Server Express 2012R2 B. Microsoft SQL Server Standard 2012R2 C. PostgreSQL D. Oracle DB 11g Correct Answer: C To perform vcenter server 5.5 for Windows with Microsoft SQL server express database migration to vcenter server appliance 6.5, you need PostgreSQL database installation on Windows.
QUESTION 14 Which is the correct sequence to upgrade a vSphere infrastructure? A. vCenter Server > ESXi host > VMware Tools > VM compatibility B. vCenter Server > ESXi host > VM compatibility > VMware Tools C. ESXi host > vCenter Server > VMware Tools > VM compatibility D. ESXi host > vCenter Server > VM compatibility > VMware Tools Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 1 An administrator is performing a silent automatic update of VMware Tools on a Windows virtual machine. What syntax needs to be entered into the Advanced Options box? A. /s /v “/qn” /l “c:\Windows\filename.log” B. –prefix=/usr/local,/usr/lib,/usr/doc –silent C. –prefix=c:\Windows,c:\VMtools –silent D. /fs /v “/qn+” /l “c:\Windows\filename.log” Correct Answer: A One way to determine the component values to use is to run the interactive VMware Tools installer with full logging turned on, select the components that you want installed, and then search the log files for the ADDLOCAL and REMOVE properties. The log files show the names used by the program. Reference: http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-50/advanced/print.jsp?topic=/com.vmware.vsphere.additional_resources.d oc_50/GUID- 3D2186A2-6EC7-470E-8D1E-CA226EDBBBB0.html
QUESTION 2 Which group in the vsphere.local domain will have administrator privileges for the VMware Certificate Authority (VMCA)? A. SolutionUsers B. CAAdmins C. DCAAdmins D. SystemConfiguration.Administrators Correct Answer: B Members of the CAAdmins group have administrator privileges for VMCA. Adding members to these groups is not usually recommended. Reference: https://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-60/index.jsp?topic= %2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.security.doc%2FGUID-87DA2F34- DCC9-4DAB-8900-1BA35837D07E.html
QUESTION 3 An administrator wants to ensure that all datastores defined on an ALUA-based storage array have load balancing enabled by default. The storage configuration is: Storage Array Type = VMW_SATP_DEFAULT_AA Path Selection Policy = VMW_PSP_FIXED Which configuration would support the stated requirements? A. Change the Storage Array Type Policy to = VMW_SATP_ALUA and the Path Selection Policy = VMW_PSP_RR. B. Change the Path Selection Policy = VMW_PSP_RR and leave the Storage Array Type Policy as is. C. Change the Storage Array Type Policy to = VMW_SATP_ALUA and leave the Path Selection Policy as is. D. Change the Path Selection Policy = NMP and leave the Storage Array Type Policy as is. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 How does vSphere High Availability calculate the memory slot size of a virtual machine? A. Virtual machine memory reservation + overhead of largest virtual machine B. Virtual machine memory reservation ?overhead of largest virtual machine C. Virtual machine memory reservation + overhead of smallest virtual machine D. Virtual machine memory reservation ?overhead of smallest virtual machine Correct Answer: A Reference: http://www.yellow-bricks.com/2009/08/12/ha-and-slot-sizes/
QUESTION 5 What is the name of the command line utility that checks for VMFS5 metadata corruption? A. vmkfstools ?heck B. voma C. vmfsanalyzer D. esxcli vmfs check Correct Answer: B It is possible to check VMFS for metadata inconsistency with a tool called VOMA (Vmware Ondisk Metadata Analyser). With VOMA you can check VMFS3 and VMFS5 datastores. Please note, that the tool can only identify problems, as it runs in a read-only mode. So it does not help you to fix detected errors. Reference: http://www.running-system.com/how-to-check-vmfs-for-metadata-corruption- esxi-5-1-and-later/
QUESTION 6 An administrator has configured three vCenter Servers and vRealize Orchestrator within a Platform Services Controller domain, and needs to grant a user privileges that span all environments. Which statement best describes how the administrator would accomplish this? A. Assign a Global Permission to the user. B. Assign a vCenter Permission to the user. C. Assign vsphere.local membership to the user. D. Assign an ESXi Permission to the user. Correct Answer: A Global permissions are applied to a global root object that spans solutions, for example, both vCenter Server and vCenter Orchestrator. Use global permissions to give a user or group privileges for all objects in all object hierarchies. Reference: http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-60/index.jsp?topic= %2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.security.doc%2FGUID- C7702E31-1623-4189-89CB- E1136AA27972.html
QUESTION 7 What are three reasons why a virtual machine might fail to power on? (Choose three.) A. The virtual machine is running on an ESXi host which has an expired license. B. The virtual machine is running on a datastore which has insufficient disk space for the .vswp file. C. The virtual machine is in a cluster with vSphere HA Admission control enabled. D. The virtual machine has a disconnected network adapter. E. The virtual machine does not have a Virtual Hard Disk assigned. Correct Answer: ABC Reference: https://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-50/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.troubleshooting.doc_50%2FGUID- D4770546-9F9A-4F1E-AC1C-CF313E6130F4.html
QUESTION 8 An administrator wants to upgrade to vCenter Server 6.x. The vCenter Server: Is hosted on a virtual machine server running Microsoft Windows Server 2008 R2, with 8 vCPUs and 16GB RAM. Will have an embedded Platform Services Controller. Hosts a Large Environment with 1,000 ESXi hosts and 10,000 Virtual Machines. Why does the vCenter Server not meet the minimum requirements? A. Windows Server 2008 R2 is not a supported Operating System for vCenter Server. B. The virtual machine has insufficient resources for the environment size. C. The environment is too large to be managed by a single vCenter Server. D. The Platform Services Controller must be changed to an External deployment. Correct Answer: B The environment is very big with 1000 ESXi host and 10,000 virtual machines. Therefore, it is not enough and the vCenter server cannot meet these requirements.
QUESTION 9 An administrator tries to run esxtop to troubleshoot CPU performance issues, but no output is displayed. How can the issue be resolved? A. esxtop is deprecated in vSphere 6.x, resxtop must be used to produce the desired output. B. In esxtop, press f and place an asterisk next to each field that should be displayed. C. sudo should be run in front of esxtop to give the administrator the proper permissions. D. The esxtop command must be run from the /proc directory to produce output. Correct Answer: B When you press f and place an asterisk next to each field that you want displayed, esxtop will definitely display performance issues, if any.
QUESTION 10 An administrator uses the df Correct Answer: A IF the NFS datastore is showing 0 bytes of capacity when you use df
QUESTION 11 Which minor badge items make up the Efficiency badge score for an ESXi host in vCenter Operations Manager? A. Workload, Anomalies, Faults B. Workload, Stress, Density C. Time Remaining, Capacity Remaining D. Reclaimable Waste, Density Correct Answer: D The third major badge that vC Ops reports is Efficiency. We all moved to virtualization in hopes of achieving greater efficiencies but there are varying degrees of efficiency so vC Ops is here to help ensure that you maximize the efficiency of your virtual infrastructure. The efficiency badge score is a weighted combination of Reclaimable Waste and Density. Reference: http://blogs.vmware.com/management/2014/04/david-davis-on-vcenter- operations-post-8-understanding- vcenter-operations-badges.html
QUESTION 12 An administrator has noticed that virtual machine VM2 in the vApp shown in the Exhibit is demonstrating poor performance.
Which three changes, if performed separately, would improve the performance of VM2? (Choose three.) A. Remove the CPU limit on the vApp. B. Remove the CPU limit on the resource pool. C. Increase the CPU reservation on virtual machine VM1. D. Power off virtual machine VM1. E. Increase the CPU reservation on virtual machine VM2. Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 13 An administrator needs to create an Integrated Windows Authentication (IWA) Identity Source on a newly deployed vCenter Server Appliance (VCSA). Which two actions will accomplish this? (Choose two.) A. Use a Service Principal Name (SPN) to configure the Identity Source. B. Use a Domain administrator to configure the Identity Source. C. Join the VCSA to Active Directory and configure the Identity Source with a Machine Account. D. Create a computer account in Active Directory for the VCSA and configure the Identity Source. Correct Answer: AC Using a machine account when configuring an Active Directory identity source for vCenter Server requires that the Windows system be joined to the domain. If the system is not joined to the domain, SSO cannot leverage the machine account to create the identity source and perform its function as the secure token service user. To resolve this issue in VCVA 5.5, use only the Use SPN option. Reference: http://kb.vmware.com/selfservice/microsites/search.do? language=en_USandcmd=displayKCandexternalId=2058919
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QUESTION 1 Which address is required to create a video endpoint in Cisco Unified Communications Manager? A. MAC B. IP C. E.164 D. SIP URI Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 Which three network elements are crucial when deploying VoIP devices? (Choose three.) A. Round-trip time B. QoS markings C. Bandwidth D. Ethernet E. Fibre F. Token ring Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 3 Which protocol allows Cisco Unified Communications Manager to take control of a specific port on a gateway? A. SIP B. H.323 C. Q.931 D. MGCP Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4 Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager device report provides key information to determine if an additional gateway is needed? A. Gateway utilization B. Gateway summary C. Gateway detail D. Gateway and line group utilization Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 Which two steps are not necessary when enabling an end user for Cisco Unified Personal Communicator?(Choose two.) A. Assign license capabilities B. Subscribe phone service C. Create a CSF device D. Configure the owner user ID Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 6 What is the interface type that you should use to connect a PSTN analog line to the VoIP network? A. FXS B. FXO C. E and M D. Serial Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 A network engineer wants to delete unassigned phone extensions from the Cisco Unified Communications Manager system. Where is this task accomplished? A. route plan report B. directory numbers C. route plan details D. enterprise parameters Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 An engineer is adding four cordless analog phones to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which solution best meets this requirement? A. Cisco VG202 Analog Voice Gateway B. Cisco VG204 Analog Voice Gateway C. Cisco VG224 Analog Voice Gateway D. Cisco VG350 Analog Voice Gateway Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 What is the admin profile used for supervisor to modify or configure the recorded messages of customer employees? A. annunciator admin B. recordings admin C. remote admin Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 On the PSTN gateway, a network engineer runs sh isdn status and finds the Layer 2 state of each interface to be “TEI_ASSIGNED”. What is the status of PSTN connectivity from this gateway? A. The T1 interfaces are established and operational. B. This information does not indicate the status of PSTN connectivity from the gateway. C. The T1 interfaces are down. D. The T1 interfaces are being tested by the carrier. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 A new user has successfully registered Cisco Jabber. Which option verifies that the Jabber client is connected to all appropriate back-end systems? A. Show Connection Status B. Report A Problem C. Advanced Settings D. About Jabber E. Reset Jabber Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 An IT administrator must allow a customer service department supervisor to change or modify a recorded message on their phone system. Which role is needed to accomplish this? A. Greeting Administrator B. Recordings Administrator C. Remote Administrator D. Annunciator Administrator Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13 Users report that no phone numbers are listed in the corporate directory, but the employee names are listed. Which option must be verified in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration to display the directory numbers? A. The primary extension is configured. B. The user\\’s phones are listed as a controlled device. C. Users are associated with their directory number. D. The telephone number field has been filled in appropriately. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14 An administrator is setting up a remote site in Cisco Unified Communications Manager that has a T1 WAN connection to the main site. Which option is the best VoIP codec for this task? A. G.711 B. G.729 C. G.712 D. G.723 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15 Which four characteristics are associated with video? (Choose four) A. greedy B. TCP retransmits C. UDP priority D. delay sensitive E. drop sensitive F. benign G. Bursty Correct Answer: ACDG
QUESTION 16 A voice admin is trying to help a user to remotely change the call forward busy settings for a directory number. Which option shows how to make this change remotely? A. Log in to https:///ucmuser > general settings. B. Log in to https:///ucmuser > phone > phone settings. C. Log in to https:///ucmuser > phone > call forwarding > advanced calling rules. D. Log in to https:///ucmuser > voicemail. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17 An end user reports that conference calls are failing. Which fault domain should be investigated first? A. IP phone B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Media Resources C. voice gateways D. network routers and switches Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18 Which three characteristics are associated with voice? (Choose three.) A. greedy B. TCP retransmits C. UDP priority D. delay sensitive E. drop insensitive F. benign G. benign or greedy Correct Answer: CDF
QUESTION 19 Which signaling method uses robbed bit signaling? A. CAS B. FXS C. FXO D. CCS Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20 Why is quality of service critical to voice network traffic? A. Voice traffic is real-time network traffic. B. Packets can be resent without affecting conversations. C. Voice traffic is bursty in nature. D. Voice traffic cannot be compressed. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21 A networking administrator needs to add a new user in Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Where must the administrator navigate to accomplish this task? A. Device Association B. User Management C. Application D. Application User Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22 Which Cisco Unified CME GUI menu option is used to navigate to the screen used to add or change a user name or password using the Cisco Unified CME GUI interface? A. Administration > Update System Info B. Configure > System Parameters C. Configure > Phones D. Configure > Extensions Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23 An engineer is configuring the Cisco Unified Communications Manager disaster recovery system. Which three statements about the disaster recovery system are true? (Choose three.) A. It requires the use of schedules for backups. B. Backup files are encrypted using the cluster security password. C. If the backup device is listed in a backup schedule, it cannot be manually deleted. D. If the backup does not complete within 40 hours, the backup times out. E. Archiving backups to tape drives is supported. F. SSL is used between the master and local agents. Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 24 A user report hearing an Echo on Call what are two common causes of echo on a Voip Networking (choose two) A. Network packet loss B. Ata C. Headset use D. Speakrphone Use E. RFI Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 25 Which two options are configured on the phone configuration page within Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administrator? (Choose two.) A. device pool B. auto answer C. partition D. voice-mail profile E. MAC address Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 26 Which path would you use to implement end users in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express using Cisco Configuration Professional? A. Configure > Unified Communications > Telephony Settings > User Settings B. Configure > Unified Communications > Users, Phones and Extensions > Phones C. Configure > Unified Communications > Users, Phones and Extensions > User Settings D. Configure > Unified Communications > Users, Phones and Extensions > Extensions E. Configure > Unified Communications > Users, Phones and Extensions > Phones and Users Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 27 Which options are two on-premise components of Cisco Unified Presence? (Choose two.) A. Cisco Unified Communication Manager B. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express C. Cisco WebEx D. Cisco Quality Management E. Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise F. Cisco Unity Connection Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 28 Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager configuration causes an IP phone screen to display a “registration rejected” message? A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager is unable to reach user IP phone. B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager database replication status is 2. C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager auto registration is disabled. D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager is unable to allocate DN. E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager subscriber is offline. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29 A company has a 5-digit dial plan. A junior engineer inquires about the directory number external masks. Why are external masks used? A. to block calling number identification B. to enable called number identification C. to convert the calling directory number to the PSTN routable calling directory number D. to associate a directory number with a SIP endpoint Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30 A Cisco administrator is asked to set up two new end users in Cisco Unified Communication Manager. Which two fields are required? (Choose two.) A. First Name B. User ID C. PIN D. Telephone Number E. Password F. Last Name Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 31 A Cisco IP phone is connected to a Cisco switch and is trying to obtain its network configuration. What is the first protocol that is used? A. RTP B. DHCP C. CDP D. SIP Correct Answer: C https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cuipph/7905g_7912g/5_0/sip/english/administration/guide/5_0/L owPovr.html#wp1066491
QUESTION 32 Which file extension is used with the Bulk Administration Tool to automatically populate and insert data into the database when adding users in bulk? A. CSV B. RAR C. NTP D. TAR Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33 An engineer must generate a report of Cisco Unified Communications Manager usage for capacity planning. Where can this information be obtained within System Reports? A. precedence call B. voice usage C. user usage D. traffic Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 34 A user needs to access CAR logs to adjust settings. Which two options are required? (Choose two.) A. The user account has the Standard CAR Admin Users role. B. The user must log in at https://:8443/car/Logon.jsp. C. The user must log in at https://:8443/cdr/Logon.jsp. D. The user account has the CTI Enabled role. E. The user account has the Standard CAR role. Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 35 User A notices echo on a call with user B. Both users are using Cisco VoIP phones. User B is using a headset, and user A is using a handset. What is the most likely source of the echo? A. user A handset B. user B headset C. disabled echo cancellation on user A phone profile D. disabled echo cancellation on user B phone profile Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 36 A user directory number is configured to forward all calls to a cell phone, but calls are not successfully forwarding. Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager setting requires reconfiguration? A. DN External Mask B. DN Route Partition C. DN Calling Search Space D. CFA Calling Search Space Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37 Which option allows an engineer to deploy new firmware to a single phone, while reducing possible impact? A. Define a new firmware load on specific device. Save configuration and reset individual device. B. Define load in device defaults. Reset Device Pool. C. Upload firmware to TFTP server. Restart TFTP service. D. Enable Peer Firmware Sharing. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38 A user reports that several IP phones in a single department are displaying a continuous “registering” message. Which fault domain should be investigated? A. network router B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager subscriber node C. network switch D. IP phones E. SIP gateway Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 39 When you configure a shared extension in Cisco Configuration Professional, which two characteristics should be the same on both phones, so that the phones can successfully use a shared extension? (Choose two.) A. Monitor mode B. MAC address C. Ephone-dn D. Number E. User ID Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 40 An IT administrator integrated the Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster with the corporate Active Directory server using the Lightweight Directory Access Protocol. However, after accessing the Cisco Unity Connection Administration section of the CUC cluster web interface, the IT administrator cannot access LDAP Directory from Users> Import Users. Which two problems have occurred? (Choose two.) A. The Cisco Unity Connections Primary server must be restarted. B. LDAP synchronization must be enabled. C. The LDAP configuration in Cisco Unified Communications Manager must have the Cisco Unity Connections LDAP integration in Cisco Unified CM Administration option enabled. D. The Cisco Unity Connections HA server must be restarted. E. The LDAP Directory Configuration must be completed in the Cisco Unity Connection Administration interface. F. The LDAP authentication settings are incorrectly specified in Cisco Unity Connections. Correct Answer: DE
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Latest effective Cisco 200-355 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 You have a lightweight AP that has been moved to a new subnet and has become stranded because DNS and DHCP servers are unavailable. The AP cannot connect to the controller. When connected to the console port, which three minimum parameters must you configure? (Choose three.) A. AP IP address B. controller name C. AP hostname D. default gateway IP address E. controller IP address F. username and password Correct Answer: ADE Explanation/Reference: In order to manually configure static information on a LAP using the AP CLI interface, you can use these EXEC mode CLI commands: AP#capwap ap ip address AP#capwap ap ip default-gateway AP#capwap ap controller ip address AP#capwap ap hostname (optional) Notice the first 3 are needed for the AP to connect to the controller; the last step is optional and not needed for basic connectivity to the controller. http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless/aironet-1200-series/99763-reset- lwappconfig-lap.html
QUESTION 2 Which Cisco AnyConnect module allows troubleshooting for core Cisco AnyConnect problems? A. telemetry B. web security C. VPN D. NAM E. DART 200-355 PDF Dumps | 200-355 Study Guide | 200-355 Braindumps 2 / 20https://www.lead4pass.com/200-355.html 2019 Latest lead4pass 200-355 PDF and VCE dumps Download F. posture G. CSSC Correct Answer: E Explanation/Reference: AnyConnect offers the DART module that can be used to analyze and troubleshoot connections. The information collected by DART can be examined locally or exported and sent to a network support desk for analysis.
QUESTION 3 Refer the exhibit. Which user in login on controller?A. Loby admin Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 Refer to the exhibit. In an effort to identify RF characteristics at a customer location, an RF engineer uses the Spectrum Analyzer tool that is shown. Which feature that is native to the Spectrum Analyzer is identified by the exhibit?A. Real-Time FFT B. Duty Cycle C. Max Hold D. Time Domain Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 Which CLI command you use in WLC to update the running IOS? A. TFTP Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 What three roles are defined by 802.1X? (Choose three.) A. AAA Server B. Authenticatee C. Authenticator D. Authentication Server E. Supplicant Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 7 What are the characteristic of 2.4Ghz? (Choose 3) A. total 1 to 11 channels are available B. total 1 to 14 channels are available C. fcc allowed 1 to 11 channels D. fcc allowed 1 to 14 channels E. max 100mw power allowed on CCK F. max 100mw power allowed on OFDM Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 8 What does the current European Telecommunications Standards Institute rule state is the 2.4- GHz maximum transmitter output power for point-to-point installations? A. 16 dBm B. 17 dBm C. 20 dBm D. 30 dBm E. 36 dBm Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 A network engineer is configuring a WLC running Cisco AireOS 8.0.100.0 for a company that uses IPv6. Which two interfaces can be configured with an IPv6 address? (Choose two.) A. management B. dynamic C. AP manager D. redundancy E. service Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 10 What is a risk when initiating the containment of a rogue AP? A. disassociating clients of valid access points that are operated by a neighboring organization B. disrupting transmission of neighboring AP clients C. breaking the radio of the containing AP D. breaking the rogue client radio or its firmware Correct Answer: A Explanation/Reference: Rogue Containment Caveats http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless/4400-series-wireless-lan- controllers/112045- handling-rogue-cuwn-00.html
QUESTION 11 How to upgrade controller through CLI from version 8.0 to 8.1? A. tftp Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 What is the effect of increasing antenna gain on a radio? A. focusing energy in a defined direction B. adding energy creating a larger cell C. aligning phase shifting D. improving frequency specific diversity Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 What is derived from measuring the RF duty cycle? A. dynamic channel selection B. LWAPP header length C. RF utilization D. transmit power control Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14 Refer to the exhibit.
At which point in the network topology must the trunk be configured to support multiple SSIDs for voice and data separation? A. A B. B C. C D. D Correct Answer: D Explanation/Reference:Controllers typically map WLANs to VLANs. When configuring a switch port to a controller, you would set the port to support 802.1Q (switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q), then set the port to trunk (switchport mode trunk) and only allow the VLANs needed by the controller (for example, switchport trunk allowed VLANs 10,20,30 if your controller needs only VLANs 10, 20, and 30).
QUESTION 15 Which two wireless technologies can interfere with 802.11 networks? (Choose two.) A. DECT B. ZigBee C. WiMax D. GSM Correct Answer: AB Explanation/Reference: Digital Enhanced Cordless Telecommunication (DECT), also known as cordless telephones, and Zigbee are both well- known sources of interferences within an 802.11 network.
QUESTION 16 Which four parameters must be configured for local EAP-FAST on the controller? (Choose four.) A. authority ID B. authority ID Information C. client key D. PAC E. server key F. TTL for PAC G. monitor key H. NTP source Correct Answer: ABEF Explanation/Reference: EAP-FAST is designed to speed re-authentication when a station roams from one AP to another. Here are the parameters that can be configured:Server Key (in hexadecimal): The key (in hexadecimal characters) used to encrypt and decrypt PACs. * Time to Live for the PAC: Enter the number of days for the PAC to remain viable. The valid range is 1 to 1000 days, and the default setting is 10 days. * Authority ID (in hexadecimal): Enter the authority identifier of the local EAP-FAST server in hexadecimal characters. It is possible to enter up to 32 hexadecimal characters, but an even number of characters must be entered. This will identify the controller as the emitter of the PAC. * Authority ID Information: Enter the authority identifier of the local EAP-FAST server in text format. * Anonymous Provision: Enable this setting to allow anonymous provisioning. This feature allows PACs to be sent automatically to clients that do not have one during PAC provisioning. If this feature is disabled, PACS must be manually provisioned. Disable this feature when using EAP- FAST with certificates. The default setting is enabled.
QUESTION 17 Which interface is used to connect the foreign and anchor controllers? A. management B. service C. virtual D. dynamic Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18 Which Cisco AnyConnect module provides wireless connectivity? A. telemetry B. web security C. VPN D. NAM E. DART F. posture G. CSSC Correct Answer: D Explanation/Reference: The Cisco AnyConnect Secure Mobility Client is a multifunctional and modular security client. It was built to enable you to use the same interface across various hardware and software platforms (operating systems) to manage and secure your connections to the network. It contains several modules:
QUESTION 19 When a wireless client is authenticated in a controller-based wireless network, which three pieces of source identification information can be used by the controller for an Access-Request message that is sent to an external RADIUS server? (Choose three.) A. wireless client IP address B. controller IP address C. AP IP address D. wireless client MAC address E. controller MAC address F. AP MAC address Correct Answer: BEF Explanation/Reference: From the Call Station ID Type drop-down list, choose IP Address, System MAC Address, or AP MAC Address to specify whether the IP address, system MAC address, or AP MAC address of the originator will be sent to the RADIUS server in the Access-Request message. http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/7- 0/configuration/guide/c70/c70sol.html#wp1389032 (Step 3)
QUESTION 20 What is use of survey tool? A. find the RF noise and interference. B. capture date and analysis it offline Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21 You are testing a new autonomous Cisco Aironet 1260 AP that has booted for the first time on the existing corporate network, which includes voice, data, and location services. How do you reach the GUI of the AP? A. HTTP to 10.0.0.1. B. HTTP to 192.168.1.1. C. HTTP to the DHCP address. D. HTTPS to 10.0.0.1. E. HTTPS to the 192.168.1.1. F. HTTPS to the DHCP address. Correct Answer: C Explanation/Reference: Make sure DHCP is enabled on the network or DNS resolution is available. The access point must receive its IP address through DHCP or DNS resolution, and the GUI can be accessed by using HTTP to this address. http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/access_point/1260/quick/guide/ap1260getstart.htm l
QUESTION 22 Refer to the exhibit.Which GUI item do you click to configure maps with APs in Cisco WCS? A. Configure B. Client C. CleanAir D. Services E. Administration F. Monitor Correct Answer: F Explanation/Reference: The Monitor menu provides you with a top level description of the devices on your network. You can monitor your network, maps, various devices, security, alarms, events, or reports. http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/wcs/52/configuration/guide/WCS5_2cg/5_2wst.html#wp1060563
QUESTION 23 What is the channel width of an 802.11b wireless channel? A. 10 MHz B. 20 MHz C. 5 MHz D. 22 MHz Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 24 A customer is reviewing Cisco Prime Infrastructure to identify malicious rogue access points that are operating within the customer environment. Which dashboard in Cisco Prime Infrastructure displays this information by default? A. Context Aware B. CleanAir C. Security D. General Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25 What two methods of authentication are available for Local EAP? A. LDAP and RADIUS B. Local and RADIUS C. Local Only D. LDAP and Local Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 26 Which option lists the key features of Cisco Compatible Extensions v5? A. Roaming and real-time diagnostics, MFP, a diagnostic channel that allows troubleshooting of the client, client reporting, optional location service, and expedited bandwidth B. AP assisted roam, Cisco Centralized Key Management, radio measurements, and transmit power control C. CAC, UPSD, voice metrics, MBSSIDs, location, link tests, and NAC D. WME, proxy ARP, EAP-FAST, and WPA2, and single sign-on E. LEAP, WPA, 802.1x and VLANs per AP, TKIP, and WiFi Correct Answer: A Explanation/Reference: http://www.cisco.com/web/partners/downloads/765/ccx/Comp_Ext_Cust_Preso.pdf
QUESTION 27 Which EAP protocol requires a certificate only on the server side? A. EAP-PEAP B. EAP-FAST C. EAP-TLS D. EAP-SSL Correct Answer: A Explanation/Reference: PEAP is not an encryption protocol; as with other EAP types it only authenticates a client into a network. PEAP uses only server-side public key certificates to authenticate clients by creating an encrypted SSL/TLS tunnel between the client and the authentication server, which protects the ensuing exchange of authentication information from casual inspection http://wiki.freeradius.org/protocol/EAP-PEAP
QUESTION 28 Which framework of services is used to gather over the air information for the Neighbor Discovery Protocol, load, interference, and noise? A. RRM B. BSSID C. EIRP D. SNR Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29 An engineer is conducting an active survey for indoor coverage in a warehouse. The warehouse has long aisles with racks that extend to the ceiling. Which antenna type has a radiation pattern that is suited to provide coverage in each aisle? A. Yagi B. patch C. omnidirectional D. dipole Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 30 Which interface is considered a dynamic interface? A. the virtual interface B. the AP manager interface C. the LAG interface D. the management interface E. the service port interface F. a WLAN client data interface Correct Answer: F Explanation/Reference: Dynamic interfaces, also known as VLAN interfaces, are created by users and designed to be analogous to VLANs for wireless LAN clients. A controller can support up to 512 dynamic interfaces (VLANs). Each dynamic interface is individually configured and allows separate communication streams to exist on any or all of a controller\\’s distribution system ports. Each dynamic interface controls VLANs and other communications between controllers and all other network devices, and each acts as a DHCP relay for wireless clients associated to WLANs mapped to the interface.
QUESTION 31 Which two statements about WiMAX technology are true? (Choose two.) A. WiMAX is defined by 802.11i. B. Typically, fixed WiMAX networks have a higher-gain directional antenna installed near the client. C. WiMAX is capable of working as a long-range system over several miles. D. WiMAX works only for licensed frequencies. Correct Answer: BC Explanation/Reference: WiMAX is defined by 802.16, that is intended for wireless “metropolitan area networks”. WiMAX can provide broadband wireless access (BWA) up to 30 miles (50 km) for fixed stations, and 3 – 10 miles (5 – 15 km) for mobile stations. In contrast, the WiFi/802.11 wireless local area network standard is limited in most cases to only 100 – 300 feet (30 – 100 m). Fixed WiMAX networks typically have a higher-gain directional antenna installed near the client (customer) which results in greatly increased range and throughput. Using 802.11 with high-gain antenna can bridge last- mile gaps, but they require more power. WiMAX operates on both licensed and non-licensed frequencies, providing a regulated environment and viable economic model for wireless carriers. In particular, WiMax operates on the 10-to 66-GHz frequency band, so it doesn\\’t interfere with 802.11 LANs.
QUESTION 32 During Layer 2 intercontroller roaming, which two items change? (Choose two.) A. SSID B. VLAN C. IP address D. AP E. controller Correct Answer: DE Explanation/Reference: When the client associates to an access point joined to a new controller, the new controller exchanges mobility messages with the original controller, and the client database entry is moved to the new controller. New security context 200-355 PDF Dumps | 200-355 Study Guide | 200-355 Braindumps 15 / 20https://www.lead4pass.com/200-355.html 2019 Latest lead4pass 200-355 PDF and VCE dumps Download and associations are established if necessary, and the client database entry is updated for the new access point. This process remains transparent to the user. http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/7- 0/configuration/guide/c70/c70mobil.html
QUESTION 33 Which description best describes upfade in a multipath environment? A. In this situation, multiple signal paths are not sent at exactly the same time. The receiver receives a positive crest on the primary signal and a negative crest on the secondary signal. B. In this situation, the multiple signal paths are distorted and difficult to understand. C. In this situation, the multiple signal paths are weaker than they should be because the signals are out of phase with each other. D. In this situation, the signal is stronger than it should be because multiple signal paths are received twice at exactly the same time, which results in the multiple signals being in-phase. Correct Answer: D Explanation/Reference: If a signal is received twice at exactly the same time, the secondary wave adds its power to the primary wave, so the receiver gets twice the positive energy (positive crest) at the same instant, then twice the negative energy (negative crest) at the same instant. The result is that both waves add up to twice the amplitude (energy) of a single wave, and both signals are said to be in phase (both signals are said to have an angle of 0 degrees). This rare condition is called upfade. If the second signal negative energy (negative crest) reaches the receiver just when the first signal positive energy (positive crest) also reaches the receiver, both signals can cancel each other, resulting in no signal at all (this is the principle used in noise cancellation headsets).
QUESTION 34 Which command is used to upgrade the operational code when upgrading a Cisco IOS-XE WLC? A. software install source switch B. software install file path:code.bin C. software tftp://code.bin flash:/code.bin D. software expand running Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 35 After you configure the Cisco 5508 Wireless Controller v7.6, a customer requests an SSID that allows for client web authentication with email input. Which authentication method should be used? A. pass-through B. authentication C. splash page web redirect D. conditional web redirect E. on MAC filter failure Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 36 Which CLI command you use in WLC to update the running IOS? A. TFTP Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 37 What is the EIRP value for a transmitter that has a transmitter capable of 15 dBm, an antenna that has a gain of 12 dBi, and a cable that connects the transmitter to the antenna that has 1 db loss? A. 26 dBm B. 100 mW C. .86 dBm D. 165 dBm E. 1000 mW Correct Answer: AExplanation/Reference: To determine EIRP follow this equation: -Cable Loss + Antenna Gain = EIRP So in this case 15 – 1 + 12 = 26
QUESTION 38 When a guest client is authenticated, which type of connection is created between the controller- based AP and the client? A. as SSL connection B. a TLS encrypted tunnel C. an unsecured connection D. a 802.1x/EAP tunnel E. an IPsec tunnel Correct Answer: C Explanation/Reference: The wireless network at UNCG allows visitors to establish an unsecured connection. The unsecured network is available as a self-service wireless profile. http://its.uncg.edu/Network_Services/Wireless/Connect/Guest/
QUESTION 39 Which AP to Wireless LAN Controller discovery process requires a previous association of the AP with a Cisco WLC? A. AP priming B. defining a master controller C. DHCP Option 6 D. DHCP Option 43 E. over-the-air provisioning Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 40 Refer to the exhibit.Which menu gives you access to manage background tasks in Cisco WCS? A. None, because the General tab provides access to the management of background tasks B. Monitor C. Configure D. Services E. Administration F. Tools Correct Answer: E Explanation/Reference: The Administration menu enables you to schedule tasks like making a backup, checking a device status, auditing your network, synchronizing the MSE, and so on. It also contains Logging to enable various logging modules and specify restart requirements. For user administration such as changing passwords, establishing groups, setting application security settings, and so on, choose AAA. From the Administration Menu, you can also access the licensing information, set user preferences, and establish high availability (a secondary backup device running WCS). http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/wcs/7-0/configuration/guide/WCS70cg/7_0wst.html#wp1060607
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The Cisco Certified Design Professional (CCDP) Certification Program is one of the most recognizable and respected certification programs in the field of network design. According to Cisco itself, the revenue of its certified professionals may exceed the pre-certification level, which the network lead4pass provider claims is the highest wage increase for any certification program.
The Cisco Certification Program provides three levels of network engineering/design certification – employees, professionals, and experts. Like many certification programs, Cisco CCDP 300-101 ROUTE recommends that IT professionals have at least six months to nine months of work experience before starting to use CCDP.
A few months of on-the-job experience provides a good baseline and skill base for compulsory courses in the CCDP certification program. 300-101 dumps Effective Cisco Certified Design Association (CCDA) certification is a prerequisite for this certification. The CCDA Exam (640-864 DESGN) does not require the completion of the Cisco Certified Networking Association (CCNA), but Cisco recommends understanding the Cisco Certified Networking Association (CNA) material.
CCDP certification training can be conducted in the traditional classroom environment through the Cisco Networking Academy, which includes instructor-led training and online training nationwide. Cisco courses are also available at many colleges and universities. All certifications have an official book called the Certification Guide published by Cisco Press.
For those interested in expert certification, Cisco offers CCIE design. The program is for those interested in designing highly specialized routing and switching networks.
High Quality Cisco CCDP 300-101 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q10)
QUESTION 1
Which command do you enter to filter only routing updates that are sent through interface GigabitEthemet0/0?
A. R1(config-if)#passive-interface GigabitEthemet0/0
B. R1(config-router)#no passive-interface GigabitHthemet0/0
C. R1config-router)#passrve-interface GigabitEthemet0/0
D. R1(conffg-router)passive-interface default
E. R1(config-if)#passive-interface default
F. R1(config-router)#distribute-list 1 GigabitEthemet0/0 out
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
A network engineer is unable to make VRF lite EIGRP adjacency work.There is nothing wrong with communication between R1 and R2. What command will eliminate the issue when executed on both routes?
A. (config-router-if)autonomous-system 100
B. (config)#ip-multicast-routing
C. (config-vrf)#route-target both 100:1
D. (config-router-af)#network 209.165.202.128 0.0.0.31
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
What does the number 16 in the following command represent?
Router(config)#snmp-server user abed public v2c access 16
A. the mask of the files that are allowed to use community string public
B. the standard named access list 16, which contains the access rules that apply to user abed.
C. the number of concurrent users who are allowed to query the SNMP community
D. the user ID that is allowed to use the community string public
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
Which value does a point-to-point GRE tjunnel use to identify a peer?
A. MAC address
B. configured multicast address.
C. DLCI
D. IP address
E. VC ID
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
Which two statements about uRPF are true? (Choose two)
A. The Keyword any can be used with both strict mode and loose mode
B. Strict mode may drop legitimate traffic.
C. tt is enabled globally.
D. Strict mode is most appropriate for networks with asymmetric routing.
E. Loose mode may drop traffic when asymmetric routing occurs on the network
F. It is enabled on a per interface basis.
Correct Answer: BF
QUESTION 6
A network engineer is configuring a DHCP server to support a specialized application. Which additional DHCP feature must be enabled to support the delivery of various additional parameters to DHCP clients? 300-101 dumps
A. modules
B. vendor extensions
C. options
D. Scopes
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
In SNMP v3, which security level provides encryption of the data?
A. authMember
B. noAuthNoPriv
C. authNoPriv
D. authPriv
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
Which three functionalities are specific to stateful NAT64? (Choose Three)
A. It requires IPv4-transalable IPv6 address
B. It requires either manual or DHCPv6 based address assignment for IPv6 host.
C. It helps ensure end-to-end address transparency and scalability
D. A state or bindings are created on every unique translation
E. it conserves IPV4 addresses
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 9
Which two options are components of a dual stack?(choose two)
A. EIGRP
B. OSPF
C. IPV6 traffic
D. IPv4 traffic
E. layer 3 switch
F. layer 2 switch
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 10
Which technology uses the many-to-one method of mapping IP addresses?
A. static NAT
B. dynamic NAT
C. NAT-PT
D. PAT
Correct Answer: D
How to pass Cisco CCDP 300-101 Certification?
Passing the Cisco CCDP 300-101 Certification requires you to spend enough time studying and practicing before the scheduled test date. Whether you are a self-study route or want to take a CCDP training course, the key is to prepare for your exam. Here are detailed tips on how to prepare for the exam so that you can complete the exam and get certified at one time.
Take the time to practice
As the saying goes, practice makes perfect. The more you practice, the better you will be able to take the exam. To get started, choose one of the official sample files provided by Cisco and detail it. In addition, the answer theory is used to understand the reasons for the specific answer. If you attend a training course through a training provider, you can rest assured that you will have access to at least one sample exam. For those who take the self-study route, you can download the sample exam from Cisco’s official website. Lead4pass is also a good choice to help you conduct extensive research on sample questions and understand the reasons for how to deal with exam questions.
Create a plan for the practice test
Organize a routine to conduct actual testing before the actual exam date. You can push yourself further by setting a deadline, and you can evaluate everything you have learned. By doing this, you’ll find areas that require your most attention, and you can polish them before testing.
Be careful in reading
Reading an exam is different from reading reading. You need to settle down and focus on the resource materials you are learning so that you can choose specific information from the materials. If you browse through your learning materials, you tend to ignore important details that are critical to your exam. 300-101 dumps You can’t avoid distractions during your studies. You need to read and understand the wording of the question and its implications. Some questions are positive and some are negative. If you miss the negative meaning of a question, you completely miss the answer. So focus on and read the lines of each question you’ve outlined and understand the answers that have been provided to them.
Focus on Cisco CCDP 300-101 Certification instead of your experience
You want to use your experience in the organization to answer questions about the 300-101 Certification exam. Choosing this method can have a negative impact on your success. Don’t give answers to questions based on the organization’s operations; instead, give answers based on the 300-101 Certification requirements. The certification exam is designed to test your understanding of the standard practices of Cisco processes, tools, functions, general concepts and roles based on five different 300-101 Certification books. You should not confuse organizational functions and operations with the standards of Cisco books.
Understand and remember the keywords
There are specific Cisco CCDP 300-101 Certification concepts with associated keywords. It is important that you learn this knowledge as they can help you provide the clues you need during the exam. Keywords such as service policies, service level management processes, governance, configuration management systems, service assets and configuration management, and configuration management databases all have their connotations. You should understand all of this and what they mean by the different exam questions you encountered in the sample questions.
Proper relaxation
Before the exam, you should relax your mind and calmly respond to the test. You don’t have to worry too much about the Cisco CCDP 300-101 Certification. It is not as difficult as you think. Through adequate preparation and study, the examination of the exam will definitely achieve excellent results in the actual exam.
CCDP is a certification that tests the ability of IT professionals to manage, configure, and troubleshoot Cisco routers and switches. This certificate is ideal for IT graduates who want to pursue a career in network engineering. Without it, they will only occupy the position of the network support staff. CCDP certificates help professionals meet market needs at the employee level.
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Best Cisco CCNP Wireless 642-732 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q20)
QUESTION 1
What are the most appropriate channels for an 802.11a/n VoWLAN survey and deployment in the FCC domain?
A. 4 channels of UNII-1
B. 8 channels of UNII-1, and UNII-2
C. 8 channels of UNII-1, and UNII-3
D. 15 channels of UNII-2, and UNII-2 extended
E. 23 channels of UNII-1, UNII-2, UNII-2 extended, and UNII-3
F. 24 channels of UNII-1, UNII-2, UNII-2 extended, UNII-3, and ISM
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
You have a multinational customer that would like you to perform a wireless site survey for a new manufacturing facility in Singapore. They have had a local vendor install a point-to- point wireless bridge link between two buildings 1 km apart.
The ground between the buildings is flat but because facilities are in the mountains, dense fog is an issue. There are no line of sight issues between the buildings. The link is experiencing errors and throughput issues. Currently the two radios are set to operate at 2.4 GHz and the transmit power is set to 7 dBm with 7 dBm antennas. What do you need to take into consideration when performing the site survey for this link?
A. Change the radio power to 17 dBm.
B. Change the radio power to 20 dBm and replace with a 16 dBm antenna.
C. Change the radio power to 29 dBm.
D. Change the radio power to 13 dBm.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Which hop count is Cisco’s maximum recommended for a client in a wireless Mesh network?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
Which two statements best describe the Fresnel zone related to an outdoor RF point-to- point link? (Choose two.)
A. blocks no more than 20 percent
B. blocks no more than 40 percent
C. blocks no more than 60 percent
D. comprises a single zone to keep clear
E. comprises multiple zones of which the first inside zone is the most important to keep clear
F. comprises multiple zones of which the outside zone is the most important to keep clear
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 5
Given an AP that can transmit at 100 mW and the client at 40 mW, which power setting should be used for a site survey?
A. 10 mW
B. 20 mW
C. 40 mW
D. 60 mW
E. 80 mW
F. 100 mW
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
When ordering the software licenses for a Cisco WLAN project, what are the minimum software packages required if the location requires 390 lightweight APs, 100 of which will be used for location services, and a Cisco 3310 MSE?
A. One 500 AP single server license package for the WCS and one 3000 device license for the MSE.
B. One 1000 AP single server license package for the WCS and one 500 device license for the MSE.
C. One 1000 AP single server license package for the WCS and one 3000 device license for the MSE.
D. One 500 AP single server license package for the WCS and one 1000 device license for the MSE.
E. One 1000 AP single server license package for the WCS and one 2000 device license for the MSE.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
Which two statements best describe the Fresnel zone related to an outdoor RF point-to- point link? (Choose two.)
A. single elliptical area surrounding an RF line of sight
B. multiple elliptical areas surrounding an RF line of sight
C. extends vertically
D. extends horizontally
E. extends three-dimensionally
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 8
An engineer is conducting a site calibration using Cisco WCS. 642-732 dumps The current network has 802.11a, 802.11b, 802.11g, and 802.11n devices. How many times should the calibration be done?
A. once for each band
B. once for each protocol
C. once per deployment
D. once using each data collection type
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
An engineer is performing a data collection to validate wireless coverage. At what two locations should a linear point collection be performed? (Choose two.)
A. office cubicles
B. private offices
C. auditorium
D. warehouse
E. conference rooms
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 10
What three pieces of information should be included in an installation report? (Choose three.)
A. software versions of each AP
B. configuration files for each WLC
C. switch connection for each MAP
D. license file for each RAP
E. radio status for each AP
F. mobility group name for each WLC
Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 11
A company has requested an indoor wireless survey in a multi-tenant building for 2.4GHz data and 5GHz voice services. Data clients will require three spatial streams and 4×4 MIMO technology. What is the Cisco recommended Access Point for performing this survey?
A. 600
B. 1600
C. 2600
D. 3600
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. During a post Mesh deployment survey, an engineer notices frame collisions occurring when MAP-1 and MAP-3 talk to RAP-2. Which type of issue is the engineer observing?
A. hidden node
B. exposed node
C. co-channel interference
D. CSMA-CA
E. backhaul latency
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
You have a customer that is renovating a historic building for a new headquarters. The building was once an old manufacturing plant. It is constructed of brick with heavy timber beams. What type of RF issues do you expect to see while performing the site survey?
A. The RF signal will be reflected by the brick walls.
B. The RF signal will be absorbed by the brick walls and wooden beams and floors.
C. The RF signal will be diffused by the brick walls and wooden beams and floors.
D. The brick walls and wooden beams and floors will cause the RF signal to be diffracted.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
An engineer notes that some areas of a floor fail when using the Location Readiness Tool in Cisco WCS. What criteria must be met for a point to be considered location ready?
A. one AP in each quadrant, with three less than 70 feet away
B. one AP in three quadrants, with two less than 70 feet away
C. one AP in each quadrant, with two less than 70 feet away
D. one AP in three quadrants, with one less than 70 feet away
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
You have a customer that operates a large open pit coal mine in the western United States. They need to deploy a wireless point-to-point bridge link across the mine. The distance of the link is 1.5 miles. Which three things do you need to consider prior to performing the site survey for this bridge link? (Choose three.)
A. What specific EPA training will be required prior to entering the customer site?
B. Is a specific Mine Safety and Health Administration training course and certificate required prior to entering the customer site?
C. What specific FCC training will be required prior to entering the customer site?
D. Will any specialized equipment or clothing will be required to perform the site survey?
E. Will customer escorts be needed during the site survey?
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 16
What are the best practice minimum and recommended signal level values for a Location Services Survey?
A. minimum: -65dBm; recommended: 60 dBm
B. minimum: -70dBm; recommended: -68 dBm
C. minimum: -75dBm; recommended: -72dBm
D. minimum: -80dBm; recommended: -78dBm
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
Which three post-installation checks should an engineer perform after a new wireless installation? (Choose three.)
A. Check for co-channel interference.
B. Check for adequate signal levels as surveyed.
C. Conduct a passive survey of 802.11a and 802.11b.
D. Conduct a passive and active survey of each media type in use.
E. Verify that the minimum data rate is 24 Mbps.
F. Verify that the cell overlap is 20%.
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit.
A company requires a multi-point bridge solution with Cisco 1400 series bridges. The central bridge (B1) is set to 10 dBm, the manufacturing remote bridge (B2) is set to 20 dBm, the inventory remote bridge (B3) is set to 20 dBm, and the shop remote bridge (B4) is set to 10 dBm. 642-732 dumps Which option is the maximum allowed power setting for all four bridges?
A. B1=12dBmB2=12dBmB3=12dBmB4=12dBm
B. B1=12dBmB2=24dBmB3=24dBmB4=24dBm
C. B1=24dBmB2=12dBmB3=12dBmB4=12dBm
D. B1=24dBmB2=24dBmB3=24dBmB4=24dBm
E. B1=20dBmB2=20dBmB3=20dBmB4=20dBm
F. B1=10dBmB2=24dBmB3=24dBmB4=24dBm
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
In performing a post-deployment audit, you are concerned by significant changes in measured RSSI and SNR values taken on a wireless client in one location. How do you explain the differences in these values?
A. The differences in the RSSI and SNR values are a result of signal diffusion in the environment.
B. The differences in the RSSI and SNR values are a result of multipath in the environment.
C. The differences in the RSSI and SNR values are a result of signal absorption in the environment.
D. The differences in the RSSI and SNR values are a result of signal diffraction in the environment.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
Which tool can best provide throughput verification?
A. WLC > Monitor > Clients > LinkTest
B. WaveDeploy
C. InSSIDer
D. Xirrus Wi-Fi Inspector
Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 21
Drag and Drop
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left to the matching Layer 2 protocol on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 22
Lab Simulation – AAA dot1x
SWITCH.com is an IT company that has an existing enterprise network comprised of two layer 2 only switches; DSW1 and ASW1. The topology diagram indicates their layer 2 mapping. VLAN 20 is a new VLAN that will be used to provide the shipping personnel access to the server. Corporate polices do not allow layer 3 functionality to be enabled on the switches.
For security reasons, it is necessary to restrict access to VLAN 20 in the following manner:
– Users connecting to VLAN 20 via portfO/1 on ASW1 must be authenticated before they are given access to the network.
Authentication is to be done via a Radius server:
– Radius server host: 172.120.40.46
– Radius key: rad123
– Authentication should be implemented as close to the host as possible.
– Devices on VLAN 20 are restricted to the subnet of 172.120.40.0/24.
– Packets from devices in the subnet of 172.120.40.0/24 should be allowed on VLAN 20.
– Packets from devices in any other address range should be dropped on VLAN 20.
– Filtering should be implemented as close to the serverfarm as possible
The Radius server and application servers will be installed at a future date. You have been tasked with implementing the above access control as a pre-condition to installing the servers. You must use the available IOS switch features.
A. See the explanation
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
1. Verification of Pre-configuration:
a. Check that the denoted vlan [vlan20] is created in both switches and ports [fa0/1 of ASW1] are assigned.
b. Take down the radius-server ip [172.120.39.46] and the key [rad123].
c. Take down the IP range [172.120.40.0/24] to be allowed the given vlan [vlan20]
2. Configure the Port based authentication on ASW1:
Enable AAA on the switch:
ASW1> enable
ASW1# conf t
ASW1(config)# aaa new-model
The new-model keyword refers to the use of method lists, by which authentication methods and sources
can be grouped or organized. Define the server along with its secret shared password:
ASW1(config)# aaa authentication dot1x default group radius
ASW1(config)# radius-server host 172.120.39.46 key rad123
This command causes the RADIUS server defined on the switch to be used for 802.1x authentication.
Enable 802.1x on the switch:
ASW1(config)# dot1x system-auth-control
Configure Fa0/1 to use 802.1x:
ASW1(config)# interface fastEthernet 0/1
ASW1(config-if)# switchport mode access
ASW1(config-if)# dot1x port-control auto
Notice that the word “auto” will force connected PC to authenticate through the 802.1x exchange.
ASW1(config-if)# exit
ASW1# copy running-config startup-config
3. Filter the traffic and create vlan access-map to restrict the traffic only for a range on DSW1 Define an access-list:
DSW1> enable
DSW1# conf t
(syntax: ip access-list {standard | extended} acl-name)
DSW1(config)# ip access-list standard 10
DSW1(config-ext-nacl)# permit 172.120.40.0 0.0.0.255
DSW1(config-ext-nacl)# exit
Define an access-map which uses the access-list above:
(syntax: vlan access-map map_name [0-65535] )
DSW1(config)# vlan access-map MYACCMAP 10
(syntax: match ip address {acl_number | acl_name})
DSW1(config-access-map)# match ip address 10
DSW1(config-access-map)# action forward
DSW1(config-access-map)# exit
DSW1(config)# vlan access-map MYACCMAP 20
(drop other networks)
DSW1(config-access-map)# action drop
DSW1(config-access-map)# exit
Apply a vlan-map into a vlan:
(syntax: vlan filter mapname vlan-list list)
DSW1(config)# vlan filter MYACCMAP vlan-list 20
DSW1# copy running-config startup-config
4. Note:
It is not possible to verify the configuration in this lab. All we have do the correct configurations. Most of the exam takers report that ” copy running-config startup- config” is not working. It does not a matter.
Do not try unwanted/wrong commands in the consoles. They are not real switches.
QUESTION 23
You have been asked to install and configure a new switch in a customer network. Use the console access to the existing and new switches to configure and verify correct device configuration.
You are connecting the New_Switch to the LAN topology; the switch has been partially configured and you need to complete the rest of configuration to enable PC1 communication with PC2.
Which of the configuration is correct?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Within any VTP, the VTP domain name must match. So, step one is to find the correct VTP name on the other switches. Logging in to SW1 and using the “show vtp status” command we see this:
So we know that the VTP domain must be CCNP. This leaves only choice D and E. We also see from the topology diagram that eth 0/0 of the new switch connects to a PC in VLNA 100, so we know that this port must be an access port in VLAN 100, leaving only choice D as correct. 300-115 dumps Note that the VTP versions supported in this network are 1, 2, 3 so either VTP version 2 or 3 can be configured on the new switch.
QUESTION 24
You have been asked to install and configure a new switch in a customer network. Use the console access to the existing and new switches to configure and verify correct device configuration.
Refer to the configuration. For which configured VLAN are untagged frames sent over trunk between SW1 and SW2?
A. VLAN1
B. VLAN 99
C. VLAN 999
D. VLAN 40
E. VLAN 50
F. VLAN 200
G. VLAN 300
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The native VLAN is used for untagged frames sent along a trunk. By issuing the “show interface trunk” command on SW1 and SW2 we see the native VLAN is 99.
QUESTION 25
You have been asked to install and configure a new switch in a customer network. Use the console access to the existing and new switches to configure and verify correct device configuration.
You are adding new VLANs. VLAN500 and VLAN600 to the topology in such way that you need to configure SW1 as primary root for VLAN 500 and secondary for VLAN 600 and SW2 as primary root for
VLAN 600 and secondary for VLAN 500. Which configuration step is valid?
A. Configure VLAN 500 & VLAN 600 on both SW1 & SW2
B. Configure VLAN 500 and VLAN 600 on SW1 only
C. Configure VLAN 500 and VLAN 600 on SW2 only
D. Configure VLAN 500 and VLAN 600 on SW1 ,SW2 and SW4
E. On SW2; configure vtp mode as off and configure VLAN 500 and VLAN 600; configure back to vtp server mode.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
By issuing the “show vtp status command on SW2, SW2, and SW4 we see that both SW1 and SW2 are operating in VTP server mode, but SW4 is a client, so we will need to add both VLANs to SW1 and SW2.
QUESTION 26
You have been asked to install and configure a new switch in a customer network. Use the console access to the existing and new switches to configure and verify correct device configuration.
Examine the VTP configuration. You are required to configure private VLANs for a new server deployment connecting to the SW4 switch. Which of the following configuration steps will allow creating private VLANs?
A. Disable VTP pruning on SW1 only
B. Disable VTP pruning on SW2 only
C. Disable VTP pruning on SW4 only
D. Disable VTP pruning on SW2, SW4 and New_Switch
E. Disable VTP pruning on New_Switch and SW4 only.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
To create private VLANs, you will need to only disable pruning on the switch that contains the private VLANs. In this case, only SW4 will connect to servers in a private VLAN.
QUESTION 27
Lab Simulation – MLS and EIGRP
You have been tasked with configuring multilayer SwitchC, which has a partial configuration and has been attached to RouterC as shown in the topology diagram. You need to configure SwitchC so that Hosts H1 and H2 can successfully ping the server S1. Also SwitchC needs to be able to ping server S1. Due to administrative restrictions and requirements you should not add/delete vlans or create trunk links.
Company policies forbid the use of static or default routing. All routes must be learned via EIGRP 65010 routing protocol.
You do not have access to RouteC. RouterC is correctly configured. No trunking has been configured on RouterC. Routed interfaces should use the lowest host on a subnet when possible. The following subnets are available to implement this solution:
– 10.10.10.0/24
– 190.200.250.32/27
– 190.200.250.64/27
Hosts H1 and H2 are configured with the correct IP address and default gateway.
SwitchC uses Cisco as the enable password.
Routing must only be enabled for the specific subnets shown in the diagram.
Note: Due to administrative restrictions and requirements you should not add or delete VLANs, changes VLAN port assignments or create trunks. Company policies forbid the use of static or default routing. All routes must be learned via the EIGRP routing protocol.
A. See the explanation
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
In real life, there are two ways to configure interVLAN routing in this case:
+ Use RouterC as a “router on a stick” and SwitchC as a pure Layer2 switch. Trunking must be established between RouterC and SwitchC. + Only use SwitchC for interVLAN routing without using RouterC, SwitchC should be configured as a Layer 3 switch (which supports ip routing function as a router). No trunking requires.
The question clearly states “No trunking has been configured on RouterC” so RouterC does not contribute to interVLAN routing of hosts H1 & H2 -> SwitchC must be configured as a Layer 3 switch with SVIs for interVLAN routing.
We should check the default gateways on H1 & H2. Click on H1 and H2 and type the “ipconfig” command to get their default gateways.
C:\>ipconfig
We will get the default gateways as follows:
Host1:
+ Default gateway: 190.200.250.33
Host2:
+ Default gateway: 190.200.250.65
Now we have enough information to configure SwitchC (notice the EIGRP AS in this case is 650)
Note: VLAN2 and VLAN3 were created and gi0/10, gi0/11 interfaces were configured as access ports so we don’t need to configure them in this sim.
SwitchC# configure terminal
SwitchC(config)# int gi0/1
-> without using this command, the simulator does not let you assign IP address on Gi0/1 interface.
SwitchC(config-if)#no switchport
->RouterC has used IP 10.10.10.1 so this is the lowest usable IP address.
SwitchC(config-if)# ip address 10.10.10.2 255.255.255.0
SwitchC(config-if)# no shutdown
SwitchC(config-if)# exit
SwitchC(config)# int vlan 2
SwitchC(config-if)# ip address 190.200.250.33 255.255.255.224
SwitchC(config-if)# no shutdown
SwitchC(config-if)# int vlan 3
SwitchC(config-if)# ip address 190.200.250.65 255.255.255.224
SwitchC(config-if)# no shutdown
SwitchC(config-if)#exit
(Notice: MLS will not work without this command)
SwitchC(config)# ip routing
SwitchC(config)# router eigrp 650
SwitchC(config-router)# network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.255
SwitchC(config-router)# network 190.200.250.32 0.0.0.31
SwitchC(config-router)# network 190.200.250.64 0.0.0.31
NOTE: THE ROUTER IS CORRECTLY CONFIGURED, so you will not miss within it in the exam , also don’t modify/delete any port just do the above configuration. Also some reports said the “no auto-summary” command can’t be used in the simulator, in fact it is not necessary because the network 190.200.0.0/16 is not used anywhere else in this topology.
In order to complete the lab , you should expect the ping to SERVER to succeed from the MLS , and from the PCs as well.
Also make sure you use the correct EIGRP AS number (in the configuration above it is 650 but it will change when you take the exam) but we are not allowed to access RouterC so the only way to find out the EIGRP AS is to look at the exhibit above. If you use wrong AS number, no neighbor relationship is formed between RouterC and SwitchC.
In fact, we are pretty sure instead of using two commands “network 190.200.250.32 0.0.0.31” and “network 190.200.250.64 0.0.0.31” we can use one simple command “network 190.200.0.0” because it is the nature of distance vector routing protocol like EIGRP: only major networks need to be advertised; even without “no auto-summary” command the network still works correctly. But in the exam the sim is just a flash based simulator so we should use two above commands, just for sure. But after finishing the configuration, we can use “show run” command to verify, only the summarized network 190.200.0.0 is shown.
QUESTION 28
Lab Simulation – MLS and EIGRP
You have been tasked with configuring multilayer SwitchC, which has a partial configuration and has been attached to RouterC as shown in the topology diagram. 300-115 dumps
You need to configure SwitchC so that Hosts H1 and H2 can successfully ping the server S1.
Also SwitchC needs to be able to ping server S1.Due to administrative restrictions and requirements you should not add/delete vlans or createtrunk links. Company policies forbid the use of static or default routing. All routes must be learned via EIGRP 650 routing protocol.
You do not have access to RouteC. RouterC is correctly configured. No trunking has been configured on RouterC. Routed interfaces should use the lowest host on a subnet when possible. The following subnets are available to implement this solution:
– 10.10.10.0/24
– 190.200.250.32/27
– 190.200.250.64/27
Hosts H1 and H2 are configured with the correct IP address and default gateway.
SwitchC uses Cisco as the enable password.
Routing must only be enabled for the specific subnets shown in the diagram.
Note: Due to administrative restrictions and requirements you should not add or delete VLANs, changes VLAN port assignments or create trunks. Company policies forbid the use of static or default routing. All routes must be learned via the EIGRP routing protocol.
A. See the explanation
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
In real life, there are two ways to configure interVLAN routing in this case:
+ Use RouterC as a “router on a stick” and SwitchC as a pure Layer2 switch. Trunking must be established between RouterC and SwitchC. + Only use SwitchC for interVLAN routing without using RouterC, SwitchC should be configured as a Layer 3 switch (which supports ip routing function as a router). No trunking requires.
The question clearly states “No trunking has been configured on RouterC” so RouterC does not contribute to interVLAN routing of hosts H1 & H2 -> SwitchC must be configured as a Layer 3 switch with SVIs for interVLAN routing.
We should check the default gateways on H1 & H2. Click on H1 and H2 and type the “ipconfig” command to get their default gateways.
C:\>ipconfig
We will get the default gateways as follows:
Host1:
+ Default gateway: 190.200.250.33
Host2:
+ Default gateway: 190.200.250.65
mls>enable
mls# configure terminal
mls(config)# int gi0/1
mls(config-if)#no switchport
mls(config-if)# ip address 10.10.10.2 255.255.255.0
mls(config-if)# no shutdown
mls(config-if)# exit
mls(config)# int vlan 2
mls(config-if)# ip address 190.200.250.33 255.255.255.224
mls(config-if)# no shutdown
mls(config-if)# int vlan 3
mls(config-if)# ip address 190.200.250.65 255.255.255.224
mls(config-if)# no shutdown
mls(config-if)#exit
mls(config)# ip routing
mls(config)# router eigrp 650
mls(config-router)# network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.255
mls(config-router)# network 190.200.250.32 0.0.0.31
mls(config-router)# network 190.200.250.64 0.0.0.31
mls(config-router)# no auto-summary
mls(config-router)# end
mls# copy run start
QUESTION 29
Lab Simulation – LACP with STP Sim
You work for SWITCH.com. They have just added a new switch (SwitchB) to the existing network as shown in the topology diagram.
RouterA is currently configured correctly and is providing the routing function for devices on SwitchA and SwitchB. SwitchA is currently configured correctly, but will need to be modified to support the addition of SwitchB. SwitchB has a minimal configuration. You have been tasked with competing the needed configuring of SwitchA and SwitchB. SwitchA and SwitchB use Cisco as the enable password.
Configuration Requirements for SwitchA
The VTP and STP configuration modes on SwitchA should not be modified.
– SwitchA needs to be the root switch for vlans 11, 12, 13, 21, 22 and 23. All other vlans should be left are their default values.
Configuration Requirements for SwitchB
– Vlan 21
Name: Marketing will support two servers attached to fa0/9 and fa0/10
– Vlan 22
Name: Sales will support two servers attached to fa0/13 and fa0/14
– Vlan 23
Name: Engineering will support two servers attached to fa0/15 and fa0/16
– Access ports that connect to server should transition immediately to forwarding state upon detecting the connection of a device.
– SwitchB VTP mode needs to be the same as SwitchA.
– SwitchB must operate in the same spanning tree mode as SwitchA
– No routing is to be configured on SwitchB
– Only the SVI vlan 1 is to be configured and it is to use address 192.168.1.11/24
Inter-switch Connectivity Configuration Requirements
– For operational and security reasons trunking should be unconditional and Vlans 1, 21, 22 and 23 should tagged when traversing the trunk link.
– The two trunks between SwitchA and SwitchB need to be configured in a mode that allows for the maximum use of their bandwidth for all vlans. This mode should be done with a non-proprietary protocol, with SwitchA controlling activation.
– Propagation of unnecessary broadcasts should be limited using manual pruning on this trunk link.
A. See the explanation
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
SW-A (close to router)
SW-A#configure terminal
SW-A(config)#spanning-tree vlan 11-13,21-23 root primary
SW-A(config)#vlan 21
SW-A(config-vlan)#name Marketing
SW-A(config-vlan)#exit
SW-A(config)#vlan 22
SW-A(config-vlan)#name Sales
SW-A(config-vlan)#exit
SW-A(config)#vlan 23
SW-A(config-vlan)#name Engineering
SW-A(config-vlan)#exit
SW-A(config)#interface range Fa0/3 ?4
SW-A(config-if-range)#no switchport mode access
(These two commands must be deleted to form a trunking link)
SW-A(config-if-range)#no switchport access vlan 98
(cannot issued this command on this switch, but don`t worry coz I still got 100%)
SW-A(config-if-range)#switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
SW-A(config-if-range)#switchport mode trunk
SW-A(config-if-range)#switchport trunk native vlan 99
SW-A(config-if-range)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,21-23
SW-A(config-if-range)#channel-group 1 mode active
SW-A(config-if-range)#channel-protocol lacp
SW-A(config-if-range)#no shutdown
SW-A(config-if-range)#end
SW-B (far from router)
SW-B#configure terminal
SW-B(config)#vlan 21
SW-B(config-vlan)#name Marketing
SW-B(config-vlan)#exit
SW-B(config)#vlan 22
SW-B(config-vlan)#name Sales
SW-B(config-vlan)#exit
SW-B(config)#vlan 23
SW-B(config-vlan)#name Engineering
SW-B(config-vlan)#exit
SW-B(config)#vlan 99
not necessary to name it but just name it same as SwitchA
SW-B(config-vlan)#name TrunkNative //
SW-B(config-vlan)#exit
SW-B(config)#interface range Fa0/9 ?10
SW-B(config-if-range)#switchport mode access
SW-B(config-if-range)#switchport access vlan 21
SW-B(config-if-range)#spanning-tree portfast
SW-B(config-if-range)#no shutdown
SW-B(config-if-range)#exit
SW-B(config)#interface range Fa0/13 ?14
SW-B(config-if-range)#switchport mode access
SW-B(config-if-range)#switchport access vlan 22
SW-B(config-if-range)#spanning-tree portfast
SW-B(config-if-range)#no shutdown
SW-B(config-if-range)#exit
SW-B(config)#interface range Fa0/15 ?16
SW-B(config-if-range)#switchport mode access
SW-B(config-if-range)#switchport access vlan 23
SW-B(config-if-range)#spanning-tree portfast
SW-B(config-if-range)#no shutdown
SW-B(config-if-range)#exit
SW-B(config)#vtp mode transparent
SW-B(config)#spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst
(you can get this IP from SW-A with command show cdp neighbour detail) // not sure about this SW-B
(config)#ip default-gateway 192.168.1.1
command because the question says “No routing is to be configured on SwitchB”.
SW-B(config)#interface vlan 1
SW-B(config-if)#ip address 192.168.1.11 255.255.255.0
SW-B(config-if)#no shutdown
SW-B(config-if)#exit
SW-B(config)#interface range Fa0/3 ?4
(yes I can issued this command on this switch)
SW-B(config-if-range)#switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
SW-B(config-if-range)#switchport mode trunk
SW-B(config-if-range)#switchport trunk native vlan 99
SW-B(config-if-range)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,21-23
//mode passive because “SwitchA controlling activation”
SW-B(config-if-range)#channel-group 1 mode passive
SW-B(config-if-range)#channel-protocol lacp
SW-B(config-if-range)#no shutdown
SW-B(config-if-range)#end You may have to configure Interface Port-Channel on both switches. Check the configuration first, if it does not exist, use these commands:
interface port-channel1
switchport mode trunk
//this command will prevent the “Native VLAN mismatched” error on both switches
switchport trunk native vlan 99
switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,21-23,99
Some notes for this sim:
+ You should check the initial status of both switches with these commands: show vtp status (transparent mode on switchA and we have to set the same mode on switchB), show spanning-tree [summary] (rapidpvst mode on switchA and we
have to set the same mode on switchB), show vlan (check the native vlan and the existence of vlan99), show etherchannel 1 port-channel and show ip int brief (check if Port-channel 1 has been created and make sure it is up), show run (to
check everything again).
+ When using “int range f0/x – y” command hit space bar before and after “-” otherwise the simulator does not accept it.
+ You must create vlan 99 for the switchB. SwitchA already have vlan 99 configured.
+ At the end, you can try to ping from SwitchB to RouterA (you can get the IP on RouterA via the show cdp neighbors detail on SwitchA), not sure if it can ping or not. If not, you can use the “ip default-gateway 192.168.1.1” on SwitchB.
+ The name of SwitchA and SwitchB can be swapped or changed so be careful to put your configuration into appropriate switch.
QUESTION 30
Hotspot – HSRP
Ferris Plastics, Inc. is a medium sized company, with an enterprise network (access, distribution and core switches) that provides LAN connectivity from user PCs to corporate servers. The distribution switches are configured to use HSRPto provide a high availability solution.
– DSW1 -primary device for VLAN 101 VLAN 102 andVLAN 105
– DSW2 – primary device for VLAN 103 and VLAN 104
– A failure of GigabitEthemet1/0/1 on primary device should cause the primary device to release its status as the primary device, unless GigabitEthernet1/0/1 on backup device has also failed.
Troubleshooting has identified several issues. Currently all interfaces are up. Using the running configurations and show commands, you have been asked to investigate and respond to the following question.
During routine maintenance, GigabitEthernet1/0/1 on DSW1 was shut down. All other interfaces were up.
DSW2 became the active HSRP device for VLAN 101 as desired. However, after GigabitEthemet1/0/1 on DSW1 was reactivated, DSW1 did not become the active router for VLAN 101 as desired. What needs to be done to make the group for VLAN 101 function properly?
A. Enable preempt in the VLAN 101 HSRP group on DSW1.
B. Disable preempt in the VLAN 101 HSRP group on DSW2’s.
C. In the VLAN 101 HSRP group on DSW1, decrease the priority value to avaluethatis less ‘ than the priority value configured in the VLAN 101 HSRP group on DSW2.
D. Decrease the decrement value in the track command for the VLAN 101 HSRP group on U DSWTs to a values less than the value in the track command for the VLAN 101 HSRP group on DSW2.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
A is correct. All other answers is incorrect. Because Vlan101 on DS1 ( left ) disable preempt. We need enable preempt to after it reactive, it will be active device. If not this command, it never become active device.
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QUESTION 1
What is PHI?
A. Protected HIPAA information
B. Protected health information
C. Personal health information
D. Personal human information
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Which of the following are Cisco cloud security solutions?
A. CloudDLP
B. OpenDNS
C. CloudLock
D. CloudSLS
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 3
Which evasion method involves performing actions slower than normal to prevent detection?
A. traffic fragmentation
B. tunneling
C. timing attack
D. resource exhaustion
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
Which encryption algorithm is the strongest?
A. AES
B. CES
C. DES
D. 3DES
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
What is a trunk link used for?
A. To pass multiple virtual LANs
B. To connect more than two switches
C. To enable Spanning Tree Protocol
D. To encapsulate Layer 2 frames
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
Which type of exploit normally requires the culprit to have prior access to the target system?
A. local exploit
B. denial of service
C. system vulnerability
D. remote exploit
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
Which security monitoring data type is associated with application server logs? 210-250 dumps
A. alert data
B. statistical data
C. session data
D. transaction data
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
Which network device is used to separate broadcast domains?
A. router
B. repeater
C. switch
D. bridge
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
Which term represents a weakness in a system that could lead to the system being comp
A. vulnerability
B. threat
C. exploit
D. risk
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
Which option is an advantage to using network-based anti-virus versus host-based anti- virus?
A. Network-based has the ability to protect unmanaged devices and unsupported operating systems.
B. There are no advantages compared to host-based antivirus.
C. Host-based antivirus does not have the ability to collect newly created signatures.
D. Network-based can protect against infection from malicious files at rest.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
Which two protocols are used for email (Choose two )
A. NTP
B. DNS
C. HTTP
D. IMAP
E. SMTP
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 12
At which OSI layer does a router typically operate?
A. Transport
B. Network
C. Data link
D. Application
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
While viewing packet capture data, you notice that one IP is sending and receiving traffic for multiple devices by modifying the IP header, Which option is making this behavior possible?
A. TOR
B. NAT
C. encapsulation
D. tunneling
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Which option is a purpose of port scanning?
A. Identify the Internet Protocol of the target system.
B. Determine if the network is up or down
C. Identify which ports and services are open on the target host.
D. Identify legitimate users of a system.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15
An intrusion detection system begins receiving an abnormally high volume of scanning from numerous sources. Which evasion technique does this attempt indicate?
A. traffic fragmentation
B. resource exhaustion
C. timing attack
D. tunneling
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Which of the following is true about heuristic-based algorithms?
A. Heuristic-based algorithms may require fine tuning to adapt to network traffic and minimize the possibility of false positives.
B. Heuristic-based algorithms do not require fine tuning.
C. Heuristic-based algorithms support advanced malware protection.
D. Heuristic-based algorithms provide capabilities for the automation of IPS signature creation and tuning.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Which security principle states that more than one person is required to perform a critical task?
A. due diligence
B. separation of duties
C. need to know
D. least privilege
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
Which tool is commonly used by threat actors on a webpage to take advantage of the software vulnerabilities of a system to spread malware? 210-250 dumps
A. exploit kit
B. root kit
C. vulnerability kit
D. script kiddie kit
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
If a web server accepts input from the user and passes it to a bash shell, to which attack method is it vulnerable?
A. input validation
B. hash collision
C. command injection
D. integer overflow
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Based on which statement does the discretionary access control security model grant or restrict access ?
A. discretion of the system administrator
B. security policy defined by the owner of an object
C. security policy defined by the system administrator
D. role of a user within an organization
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
Which definition of the virtual address space for a Windows process is true?
A. actual physical location of an object in memory
B. set of virtual memory addresses that it can use
C. set of pages that are currently resident in physical memory
D. system-level memory protection feature that is built into the operating system
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
How many broadcast domains are created if three hosts are connected to a Layer 2 switch in full-duplex mode?
A. 4
B. 3
C. None
D. 1
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23
Which hashing algorithm is the least secure?
A. MD5
B. RC4
C. SHA-3
D. SHA-2
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
What is one of the advantages of the mandatory access control (MAC) model?
A. Stricter control over the information access.
B. Easy and scalable.
C. The owner can decide whom to grant access to.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
Which definition of vulnerability is true?
A. an exploitable unpatched and unmitigated weakness in software
B. an incompatible piece of software
C. software that does not have the most current patch applied
D. software that was not approved for installation
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
Which definition of a process in Windows is true?
A. running program
B. unit of execution that must be manually scheduled by the application
C. database that stores low-level settings for the OS and for certain applications
D. basic unit to which the operating system allocates processor time
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 27 210-250 dumps According to the attribute-based access control (ABAC) model, what is the subject location considered?
A. Part of the environmental attributes
B. Part of the object attributes
C. Part of the access control attributes
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28
Which term represents a potential danger that could take advantage of a weakness in a system?
A. vulnerability
B. risk
C. threat
D. exploit
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 29
DRAG DROP
Drag the technology on the left to the data type the technology provides on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 30
DRAG DROP
Drag the data source on the left to the left to the correct data type on the right.
Select and Place:
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Hot Microsoft Windows Client 70-686 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-15)
QUESTION 1
A company has an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) forest with a single domain.
Domain controllers are located in the companys offices in New York and Boston.
You deploy a group policy at the domain level that includes security filtering.
You discover that Group Policy object (GPO) settings are being applied to computers in the New York office, but not to computers in the Boston office.
You suspect there might be replication problems with the policies. What should you do?
A. Run a Group Policy Results report against computers in the Boston office.
B. Run a Group Policy Modeling report against computers in the Boston office.
C. Use the GpoTool.exe command-line tool.
D. Use the RepAdmin.exe command-line tool.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Your companys network has client computers that run Windows 7.
A software vendor releases version 2 of an application that your company uses.
Your company currently uses version 1. Version 1 and version 2 are not compatible.
You plan to deploy version 2 of the application.
You have the following requirements:
You need to plan a software deployment process that meets the requirements. What should you do? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Deploy version 2 of the application by using Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V).
B. Deploy version 2 of the application by using Microsoft Enterprise Desktop (MED-V).
C. Deploy version 2 of the application as a Remote Desktop Services RemoteApp.
D. Deploy version 2 of the application by using a Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager package.
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation:
Microsoft Application Virtualization (MS App-V) platform allows applications to be deployed in real-time to any client from a virtual application server. It removes the need for local installation of the applications. Instead, only the App-v client needs to be installed on the client machines. All application data is permanently stored on the virtual application server. Whichever software is needed is either streamed or locally cached from the application server on demand and run locally.
The App-V stack sandboxes the execution environment so that the application does not make changes to the client itself (OS File System and/or Registry). App-V applications are also sandboxed from each other, so that different versions of the same application can be run under App-V concurrently.
QUESTION 3
A company uses Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT) 2010 to deploy Windows 7 Enterprise and Microsoft Office 2010. The company is replacing existing computers with new 64-bit computers.
You have the following requirements:
You need to create an image that meets these requirements.
What should you do? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Import the Windows 7 Enterprise x86 source files.
B. From the MDT deployment workbench, select the Custom Task Sequence template.
C. Use a reference computer and capture a WIM image.
D. From the MDT deployment workbench, select the Sysprep and Capture template.
E. Import the necessary OEM drivers.
F. Import the 32-bit version of Office 2010.
G. Import the 64-bit version of Office 2010.
H. Import the Windows 7 Enterprise x64 source files.
Correct Answer: ABEF
Explanation:
hints:
The specialized hardware is compatible with Windows 7 but only 32-bit drivers are available from the manufacturer.
QUESTION 4
Your company’s network includes a main office and several branch offices. The branch offices are connected to the main office by high-latency links. All client computers run Windows 7 Enterprise, and all servers run Windows Server 2008 R2. Servers are located in each of the branch offices.
Client computers in the branch offices frequently access a specific group of files on a file server named Server1. These access requests consume significant amounts of bandwidth and reduce the speed of higher-priority traffic.
You need to reduce the bandwidth that is consumed by requests for frequently accessed files.
What should you do?
A. Configure BranchCache in Hosted Cache mode on client computers in the main office and the branch offices.
B. Configure BranchCache in Distributed Cache mode on client computers in the main office and the branch offices.
C. Enable the BranchCache For Network Files role service on Server1. Configure BranchCache in Distributed Cache mode on a server computer in only the branch offices.
D. Enable the BranchCache For Network Files role service on Server1. Configure BranchCache in Hosted Cache mode on a server computer in only the branch offices.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
BranchCacheTM is designed to reduce WAN link utilization and improve application responsiveness for branch office workers who access content from servers in remote locations. Branch office client computers use a locally maintained cache of data to reduce traffic over a WAN link. The cache can be distributed across client computers (Distributed Cache mode) or can be housed on a server in the branch (Hosted Cache mode).
Distributed Cache mode 70-686 dumps
If client computers are configured to use Distributed Cache mode, the cached content is distributed among client computers on the branch office network. No infrastructure or services are required in the branch office beyond client computers running Windows 7.
Hosted Cache mode
In hosted cache mode, cached content is maintained on a computer running Windows Server 2008 R2 on the branch office network.
hints: no server are located in the branch office.
QUESTION 5
A Windows Server 2008 R2 server named SERVER01 has the Windows Deployment Services (WDS) role installed. SERVER02 is running DHCP services. You prestage computer objects in Active Directory. You plan to use WDS to deploy Windows 7 to the prestaged computers. When you try to deploy an image by using PXE, the process fails. You need to ensure that SERVER01 responds to prestaged client computers only. From WDS, what should you do? (Choose all that apply.)
A. On the DHCP tab, select Configure DHCP option 60 to indicate that this server is also a PXE server.
B. On the Advanced tab, select Authorize this Windows Deployment Services server in DHCP.
C. On the PXE Response tab, select Respond to all client computers (known and unknown).
D. On the DHCP tab, select Do not listen on Port 67.
E. On the PXE Response tab, select Respond only to known client computers.
F. On the Advanced tab, select Do not authorize this Windows Deployment Services server in DHCP.
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation:
hints: prestaged computers = known client computers
QUESTION 6
Your company has a custom Web application that uses a self-signed SSL certificate. The company has an internal certification authority (CA) and uses autoenrollment. When external users attempt to start the Web application, Internet Explorer displays an error message that recommends closing the Web page rather than continuing to the application. You need to ensure that Internet Explorer does not display the error message. What should you do?
A. Install the current certificate into the personal store on each client computer. Add the applications URL to the Trusted Sites zone in Internet Explorer.
B. Install the current certificate into the computer store on each client computer.
C. Purchase and install a commercial certificate on the CA server. Ensure that users trust the issuing CA.
D. Issue a root certificate from the internal CA on the external users computers.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Your companys network is shown in the following diagram.
There is a VPN between Branch Officebranch office B and the Core Networkcore network.
The company plans to deploy Windows 7 to all client computers.
You need to manage the deployment to ensure that client computers in branch office A and in branch office B can activate Windows.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Configure DNS so that client computers in branch office A use the Key Management Service (KMS) in the core network.
B. Deploy the Key Management Service (KMS) in branch office B.
C. Deploy the Key Management Service (KMS) in branch office A.
D. Configure DNS so that client computers in branch office B use the Key Management Service (KMS) in the core network.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 8
You are deploying an App-V client application to the New York office.
You need to ensure that the application will be installed at a specific time.
What should you use to deploy the application?
A. ConfigMgr
B. a Group Policy object (GPO) with a software installation policy.
C. MED-V
D. Microsoft Deployment Toolkit
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
Your company has client computers that run Windows 7 Enterprise.
Each computer in the company is required to boot into a different Windows 7 application environment without compromising the main Windows 7 Enterprise installation.
You need to create a new Native Boot VHD that will host the alternate Windows 7 environments.
Which command should you use?
A. BCDEdit.exe
B. Bootcfg.exe
C. DiskPart.exe
D. BCDboot.exe
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
BCDboot is a tool used to quickly set up a system partition, or to repair the boot environment located on the system partition. The system partition is set up by copying a small set of boot environment files from an installed Windows?image.
BCDboot also creates a Boot Configuration Data (BCD) store on the system partition with a new boot entry that enables you to boot to the installed Windows image. BCDEdit is a command-line tool for managing BCD stores. It can be used for a variety of purposes, including creating new stores, modifying existing stores, adding boot menu parameters, and so on. BCDEdit serves essentially the same purpose as Bootcfg.exe on earlier versions of Windows, but with two major improvements
QUESTION 10
Your company has a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain and 1,000 Windows 7 computers. You are planning to deploy a custom application. You need to schedule the deployment to occur outside of business hours and without user interaction.
What should you do? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Create a collection with the required computers and assign the software to the collection.
B. Create a software installation Group Policy object (GPO).
C. Assign the policy to the root of the Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain.
D. Create a software deployment package by using System Center Configuration Manager 2007.
E. Create an unattend.xml file.
F. Create a silent install MSI file.
Correct Answer: ADF
Explanation:
hints: without user interaction = silent install MSI file
QUESTION 11
A network consists of 1,000 laptop computers that run Windows XP. The computers do not have access to the corporate network.
You plan to migrate 200 of the computers immediately to Windows 7. The remainder will be migrated over the next several months.
You need to plan the most efficient method for activating all of the computers.
What should you do?
A. Use Multiple Activation Key (MAK) Independent for the first 200 computers, and then use Multiple Activation Key (MAK) Proxy for the remaining computers.
B. Use the Key Management Service (KMS) for all the computers.
C. Use Multiple Activation Key (MAK) Independent for all the computers.
D. Use Multiple Activation Key (MAK) Proxy for the first 200 computers, and then use the Key Management Service (KMS) for the remaining computers.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Key Management Service (KMS) requires a count of 25 or higher from the KMS host to activate itself.
QUESTION 12
Your company’s network is shown in the following diagram.
Each office is connected to the Internet through a high-bandwidth connection. The branch offices are connected to the core network through low-bandwidth connections. 70-686 dumps
Microsoft Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) must provide software updates for all offices.
You need to design the WSUS infrastructure to minimize traffic over the low-bandwidth connections.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Deploy BranchCache on the WSUS server and client computers
B. Configure WSUS to use updates that are stored locally
C. Configure WSUS to use updates that are stored on Microsoft Update
D. Deploy Quality of Service (QoS) on the WSUS server and client computers
E. Deploy WSUS servers in the branch offices
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation:
WSUS update from Microsoft update is faster then core network Deploy WSUS servers in each branch office in order to provide WSUS server for branch client.
hints:
1. Each office is connected to the Internet through a high-bandwidth connection.
2. The branch offices are connected to the core network through low-bandwidth connections.
QUESTION 13
Your network is configured as shown in the following diagram.
You are planning to deploy Windows 7.
You have the following requirements:
?Use BitLocker on all computers in the isolated network.
?Provide DirectAccess on all portable computers.
?Use the Key Management Service (KMS) to activate all client computers.
You need to plan a client computer licensing strategy that meets the requirements.
What should you do?
A. License 500 copies of Windows 7 Ultimate.
B. License 500 copies of Windows 7 Enterprise.
C. License 350 copies of Windows 7 Professional, license 150 copies of Windows 7 Ultimate, and purchase Software Assurance for the Windows 7 Professional licenses.
D. License 350 copies of Windows 7 Enterprise, and license 150 copies of Windows 7 Ultimate.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
hints:
Direct Access only available for Ultimate and Enterprise only.
Company should use Enterprise version
QUESTION 14
Your company has 1,000 client computers that run Windows 7. The company uses several custom line-of-business applications that are not compatible with Windows 7.
You need to distribute a Microsoft Enterprise Desktop Virtualization (MED-V) virtual machine (VM) image that includes the custom applications to all Windows 7 client computers.
What should you do?
A. Mount the VM image from the MED-V workspace.
B. Deploy the VM image from the MED-V server.
C. Deploy the VM image by using Windows Deployment Services (WDS).
D. Deploy the VM image by using Windows Server Update Services (WSUS).
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
Your company plans to upgrade all client computers to Windows 7.
The company uses a custom line-of-business application. The application contains sensitive data. The application will not run on Windows 7
You establish that Microsoft Enterprise Desktop Virtualization (MED-V) is the appropriate technology to allow your organization to continue to use the application.
You need to ensure that the virtual machine (VM) images that contain sensitive data can be used only when the user is connected to the MED-V server.
What should you do?
A. Using MED-V TrimTransfer technology, deploy the VM image over the network
B. In the MED-V console, configure the MED-V workspace to prevent offline operation
C. Use BitLocker Drive Encryption to encrypt the drive on which the VM image is stored
D. Using Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager, deploy the VM image to an image store directory
Correct Answer: B
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VMware VCP6-DCV 2V0-621 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers Update (1-30)
QUESTION 1
Which two roles can be modified? (Choose two.)
A. Administrator
B. Network Administrator
C. Datastore Consumer
D. Read-Only
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 2
An administrator wishes to give a user the ability to manage snapshots for virtual machines.
Which privilege does the administrator need to assign to the user?
A. Datastore.Allocate Space
B. Virtual machine.Configuration.create snapshot
C. Virtual machine.Configuration.manage snapshot
D. Datastore.Browse Datastore
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
What is the highest object level from which a virtual machine can inherit privileges?
A. Host Folder
B. Data Center
C. Data Center Folder
D. VM Folder
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
In which two vsphere.local groups should an administrator avoid adding members? (Choose two.)
A. SolutionUsers
B. Administrators
C. DCAdmins
D. ExternalPDUsers
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 5
Which three services can be enabled/disabled in the Security Profile for an ESXi host? (Choose three.)
A. CIM Server
B. Single Sign-On
C. Direct Console UI
D. Syslog Server
E. vSphere Web Access
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 6
Strict Lockdown Mode has been enabled on an ESXi host.
Which action should an administrator perform to allow ESXi Shell or SSH access for users with administrator privileges?
A. Grant the users the administrator role and enable the service.
B. Add the users to Exception Users and enable the service.
C. No action can be taken, Strict Lockdown Mode prevents direct access.
D. Add the users to vsphere.local and enable the service.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Which two groups of settings should be reviewed when attempting to increase the security of virtual machines (VMs)? (Choose two.) 2V0-621 dumps
A. Disable hardware devices
B. Disable unexposed features
C. Disable VMtools devices
D. Disable VM Template features
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 8
An administrator would like to use a passphrase for their ESXi 6.x hosts which has these characteristics:
• Minimum of 21 characters
• Minimum of 2 words
Which advanced options must be set to allow this passphrase configuration to be used?
A. retry=3 min=disabled, disabled, 7, 21, 7 passphrase=2
B. retry=3 min=disabled, disabled, 21, 7, 7 passphrase=2
C. retry=3 min=disabled, disabled, 2, 21, 7
D. retry=3 min=disabled, disabled, 21, 21, 2
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
An administrator has recently audited the environment and found numerous virtual machines with sensitive data written to the configuration files.
To prevent this in the future, which advanced parameter should be applied to the virtual machines?
A. isolation.tools.setinfo.disable = true
B. isolation.tools.setinfo.enable = true
C. isolation.tools.setinfo.disable = false
D. isolation.tools.setinfo.enable = false
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
When attempting to log in with the vSphere Web Client, users have reported the error:
Incorrect Username/Password
The administrator has configured the Platform Services Controller Identity Source as:
• Type. Active Directory as an LDAP Server
• Domain: vmware.com
• Alias: VMWARE
• Default Domain: Yes
Which two statements would explain why users cannot login to the vSphere Web Client? (Choose two.)
A. Users are typing the password incorrectly.
B. Users are in a forest that has 1-way trust.
C. Users are in a forest that has 2-way trust.
D. Users are logging into vCenter Server with incorrect permissions.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 11
An administrator needs to create an Integrated Windows Authentication (IWA) Identity Source on a newly deployed vCenter Server Appliance (VCSA).
Which two actions will accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. Use a Service Principal Name (SPN) to configure the Identity Source.
B. Use a Domain administrator to configure the Identity Source.
C. Join the VCSA to Active Directory and configure the Identity Source with a Machine Account.
D. Create a computer account in Active Directory for the VCSA and configure the Identity Source.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 12
An administrator is building a large virtual machine that will require as many vCPUs as the host can support. An ESXi 6.x host has these specifications:
• Six 32-core Intel Xeon Processors
• 256 GB of Memory
• 512 GB Local disk space using VMFS5
What is the maximum number of virtual CPUs that the virtual machine can be allocated?
A. 64
B. 128
C. 192
D. 256
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
An administrator is creating a new Content Library. It will subscribe to another remote Content Library without authentication enabled.
What information from the published library will they need in order to complete the subscription ?
A. Subscription URL
B. A security password from the publishing Content Library
C. Publisher’s Items.json file
D. Username from the publishing Content Library
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
A user notifies an administrator that Content Libraries are not visible.
What is a possible solution?
A. Assign the user the read-only role at the global permission level.
B. Assign the user the read-only role at the vCenter Server root level.
C. Assign the user the read-only role at the vCenter Server data center level.
D. Assign the user the read-only role at the vCenter Server cluster level.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
An administrator subscribes to the vCloud Air Disaster Recovery service.
Which replicated objects can be directly monitored and managed?
A. Virtual machine Snapshots
B. vApps
C. Virtual machines
D. ESXi Hosts
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
Which secondary Private VLAN (PVLAN) type can communicate and send packets to an Isolated PVLAN? 2V0-621 dumps
A. Community
B. Isolated
C. Promiscuous
D. Primary
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
What are two limitations of Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP) on a vSphere Distributed Switch? (Choose two.)
A. IP Hash load balancing is not a supported Teaming Policy.
B. Software iSCSI multipathing is not compatible.
C. Link Status Network failover detection must be disabled.
D. It does not support configuration through Host Profiles.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 18
An administrator runs the command esxcli storage core device list and sees the following output:
mpx.vmhba1:C0:T0:L0 Display Name: RAID 5 (mpx.vmhba1:C0:T0:L0) Has Settable Display Name: false SizE. 40960 Device Type: Direct-Access Multipath Plugin: NMP Devfs Path:
/vmfs/devices/disks/mpx.vmhba1:C0:T0:L0 Status: off Is Local: true
What can be determined by this output?
A. The device is a being used for vFlash Read Cache.
B. The device is in a Permanent Device Loss (PDL) state.
C. The device is a local Solid State Device (SSD).
D. The device is in an All Paths Down (APD) state.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
Which two considerations should an administrator keep in mind when booting from Software Fiber Channel over Ethernet (FCoE)? (Choose two.)
A. Software FCoE boot configuration can be changed from within ESXi.
B. Software FCoE boot firmware cannot export information in FBFT format.
C. Multipathing is not supported at pre-boot.
D. Boot LUN cannot be shared with other hosts even on shared storage.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 20
Which two statements are true regarding VMFS3 volumes in ESXi 6.x? (Choose two.)
A. Creation of VMFS3 volumes is unsupported.
B. Upgrading VMFS3 volumes to VMFS5 is supported.
C. Existing VMFS3 volumes are unsupported.
D. Upgrading VMFS3 volumes to VMFS5 is unsupported.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 21
Where is a Virtual SAN Fault Domain configured?
A. VMware Virtual SAN Cluster configuration
B. VMware High Availability Cluster configuration
C. Distributed Resource Scheduler configuration
D. Datacenter Advanced Settings configuration
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
Which two tasks does the Pluggable Storage Architecture (PSA) perform? (Choose two.)
A. Handles I/O queueing to the logical devices.
B. Handles physical path discovery, but is not involved in the removal.
C. Handles physical path discovery and removal.
D. Handles I/O queueing to FC storage HBAs.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 23
What is the command to list multipathing modules on an ESXi 6.x host?
A. esxcli storage core list plugin –plugin-class=MP
B. esxcli storage core list plugin –class-plugin=MP
C. esxcli storage core plugin list –plugin-class=MP
D. esxcli storage core plugin list –class-plugin=MP
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
Refer to the Exhibit.
What will be the result of selecting the highlighted device?
A. Datastore will grow up to 200.01GB using the remaining free space on the device.
B. Datastore will add 200.01GB by adding the device as a second extent.
C. The device size can be expanded to be larger than 200.01 GB in size.
D. The device is not suitable for this operation.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
Refer to the Exhibit.
An administrator wishes to provide Load Balanced I/O for the device shown in the Exhibit.
To meet this requirement, which setting should be changed?
A. Storage Array Type Policy = VMW_NMP_RR
B. Path Selection Policy = Round Robin (VMware)
C. Storage Array Type Policy = VMW_SATP_RR
D. Path Selection Policy = MRU (VMware)
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
Which file determines the location of the installation script during a scripted upgrade?
A. boot.cfg
B. ks.cfg
C. script.cfg
D. upgrade.cfg
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 27
What are three recommended prerequisites before upgrading virtual machine hardware? 2V0-621 dumps (Choose three.)
A. Create a backup or snapshot of the virtual machine.
B. Upgrade VMware Tools to the latest version.
C. Verify that the virtual machine is stored on VMFS3, VMFS5, or NFS datastores.
D. Detach all CD-ROM/ISO images from the virtual machines.
E. Set the Advanced Parameter virtualHW.version = 11
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 28
When upgrading vCenter Server, an administrator notices that the upgrade fails at the vCenter Single Sign-On installation.
What must be done to allow the upgrade to complete?
A. Verify that the VMware Directory service can stop by manually restarting it.
B. Verify that the vCenter Single Sign-On service can stop by manually restarting it.
C. Uninstall vCenter Single Sign-On service.
D. Uninstall the VMware Directory service.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29
An administrator is upgrading vCenter Server and sees this error:
The DB User entered does not have the required permissions needed to install and configure vCenter Server with the selected DB.
Please correct the following error(s): %s
Which two statements explain this error? (Choose two.)
A. The database is set to an unsupported compatibility mode.
B. The permissions for the database are incorrect.
C. The permissions for vCenter Server are incorrect.
D. The database server service has stopped.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 30
Which log file would you examine to identify an issue which occurred during the pre-upgrade phase of a vCenter Server upgrade process?
A. vcdb_req.out
B. vcdb_export.out
C. vcdb_import.out
D. vcdb_inplace.out
Correct Answer: A
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