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Table of Contents:

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Exam MS-301: Deploying SharePoint Server Hybrid: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/ms-301

Candidates for this exam are Teamwork Administrators who are responsible for configuring, deploying and managing Office 365 and Azure workloads that focus on efficient and effective collaboration and adoption. Teamwork Administrators manage apps, services, and supporting infrastructure to meet business requirements. The Teamwork Administrator must be able to deploy, manage, migrate, and secure SharePoint (online, on-premises, and hybrid), OneDrive, and Teams.

The Teamwork Administrator is involved with decisions regarding governance and works with other Administrators to implement many of the decisions made by governance bodies. The Teamwork Administrator collaborates with the Messaging Administrator to configure options and security related to email tasks, the Voice Administrator to integrate voice capabilities in organizations, and the Security Administrator to ensure end-to-end security.

Candidates for this exam have a fundamental understanding of integration points with the following apps and services: Office, Power Apps, Flow, Yammer, Microsoft Graph, Stream, Planner, and Project. The administrator understands how to integrate third-party apps and services including line-of-business applications. Candidates also have an understanding of SQL Server management concepts, Azure Active Directory, PowerShell, networking, Windows server administration, Domain Name System (DNS), Active Directory mobile device management, and alternative operating systems.

Skills measured

  • Configure and manage SharePoint on-premises (55-60%)
  • Configure and manage hybrid scenarios (30-35%)
  • Migrate to SharePoint Online (5-10%)

Latest updates Microsoft MS-301 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
You have a SharePoint Server farm and a Microsoft Exchange Server organization. SharePoint Server crawls Exchange
Server content.
You create a new result source that uses the Exchange Server protocol.
You need to ensure that users can search the Exchange Server content.
What should you create?
A. a custom search result type
B. an additional index partition
C. a Search Center
D. an eDiscovery Center
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sharepoint/search/configure-result-sources-for-search

QUESTION 2
You have a SharePoint Server farm.
You have several document libraries that contain AutoCAD files.
You discover that search results never return any of the AutoCAD files.
You need to crawl the AutoCAD files.
Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Set-SPEnterpriseSearchFileFormatState
B. New-SPEnterpriseSearchfileFormat
C. Set-EnterpriseSearchResultItemType
D. Add-FASTSearchResource
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than once correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a SharePoint Server farm.
You create an external content type named ECT1 for a Microsoft SQL Server database.
You implement cloud hybrid search.
You create a Line of Business Data content source and run a full crawl.
Users in SharePoint Online report that the search results do not contain any data from ECT1.
You need to ensure that searches can return data from ECT1.
Solution: You grant the Default content access account Read permissions to the Central Administration web
application.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You have a SharePoint Server farm.
You create a web application that has a URL of https://portal.contoso.com and a root site collection.
You need to ensure that site collection administrators can create new site collections directly from the root site. The new
sites must use the modern user interface.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
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lead4pass ms-301 exam question q4-1

QUESTION 5
Your company has a SharePoint Server farm. All servers are virtualized on a Hyper-V host. The company has a single
data center.
You need to design a disaster recovery solution. The solution must meet the following requirements:
If the data center fails, SharePoint Server services must be recoverable within 24 hours.
Up to one hour of data can be lost.
Costs must be minimized during normal operations.
Which technology best meets the requirements? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal.
A. Hyper-V synchronous replication
B. the OneDrive sync client
C. the SharePoint Migration Tool
D. Azure Site Recovery
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
You are planning the implementation of a SharePoint hybrid environment that will contain the following workloads:
Workload1: An external list exposing data from a public OData service endpoint.
Workload2: An external list exposing data from a Microsoft Azure SQL database.
Workload3: A site that contains a sandbox solution.
Workload4: A Microsoft Flow workload.
Which workload can run only in the SharePoint Server farm and which workload can run only in SharePoint Online? To
answer, drag the appropriate workloads to the correct environments. Each workload may be used once, more than
once,
or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
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lead4pass ms-301 exam question q6-1

QUESTION 7
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than once correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a SharePoint Server farm.
You configure the farm to support custom tiles, and you add an item to the custom tiles list.
You discover that the new item appears at the bottom of the list in the app launcher.
You need to ensure that the new item appears first on the list.
Solution: You run the Set-SPWebApplication cmdlet and specify the -AssignmentCollection parameter.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
You have a SharePoint hybrid environment.
When you run a search on-premises, you do not see any results from SharePoint Online on the results page.
You need to ensure that SharePoint Online results appear on the search results page along with the results from on-
premises SharePoint Server.
Which two objects should you create? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. a search results page in on-premises SharePoint Server
B. a result source in on-premises SharePoint Server
C. a query rule in on-premises SharePoint Server
D. a search results page in SharePoint Online
E. a result source in SharePoint Online
F. a query rule in SharePoint Online
Correct Answer: BC
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sharepoint/hybrid/display-hybrid-federated-search-results-in-sharepoint-server

QUESTION 9
You have a SharePoint Server farm.
You have the following three types of document libraries: expense reports, purchase orders, and invoices. Each
document in the libraries has an associated project code and cost center.
You need to ensure that when users check in expense reports, purchase orders, and invoices, the documents are
associated to a project code and a cost center. The project code and cost center must be in a consistent format across
all the
document libraries. The solution must minimize administrative effort.
What should you include in the solution?
A. managed properties
B. site content types
C. site columns
D. site templates
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You have a SharePoint Server farm and a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You plan to deploy the On-premises data gateway.
Which three cloud services can use the gateway to access SharePoint data? Each correct answer presents a complete
solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Microsoft StaffHub
B. Microsoft PowerApps
C. Microsoft Power BI
D. Microsoft Planner
E. Microsoft Flow
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 11
You have a SharePoint Server farm.
You are troubleshooting Kerberos authentication for the farm.
You need to view the Kerberos tickets issued to the server.
What should you run?
A. the klist.exe command
B. the stsadm.exe command
C. the Get-SPAuthenticationRealm cmdlet
D. the Get-SPAppAcquisitionConfiguration cmdlet
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
You have SharePoint Server farm and a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You use Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) Connect to sync accounts.
You have a file server that contains a file named File1. File1 contains the permissions shown in the following table. lead4pass ms-301 exam question q12

You migrate the share that contains File1 to SharePoint Online by using the SharePoint Migration Tool.
Which permission does each user have to File1 in SharePoint Online? To answer, drag the appropriate permissions to
the correct users. Each permission may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar
between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

lead4pass ms-301 exam question q12-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-301 exam question q12-2

QUESTION 13
You need to deploy hybrid OneDrive for Business to all the remaining users.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
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lead4pass ms-301 exam question q13-1

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Exam MB-210: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Sales: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/mb-210

Candidates for this exam are Dynamics 365 functional consultants with sales expertise. Candidates are responsible for implementing solutions that support a sales life cycle to run efficiently and effectively to meet revenue targets, business strategies, and company objectives.

Candidates are responsible for configuring and expanding the core functionality of Leads, Contacts, Accounts, Opportunities and supporting entities to map to the sales processes in place at the company. They identify opportunities to use Power Apps to develop unified experiences for all devices, Power Automate for application integration, business process flows, and other automation tools to construct an application that supports and accelerates the “lead to cash journey.”

Candidates must have the strong business knowledge and preferably first-person experience in the sales world in one or more sales roles.

Skills measured

  • Perform configuration (40-45%)
  • Manage core sales entities (20-25%)
  • Manage sales entities (35-40%)

Latest updates Microsoft MB-210 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
You create an invoice with products and services for a customer.
You need to add pricing for a product that is not available in the product catalog.
What should you do?
A. Add the product to the order and use Get Products
B. Add a write-in product
C. Add an existing product and change the name and price
D. Add the product to the quote and use Get Products
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/sales-enterprise/add-product-quote-order-invoice

QUESTION 2
You manage a Dynamics 365 Sales environment.
You need to configure the default status for each lead.
Which status reason should you associate to each scenario? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer
area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
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QUESTION 3
You work in a sales role for an organization that uses Dynamics 365. You are managing an opportunity for a potential
customer.
You need to create a quote that automatically includes all the products from the opportunity.
What should you do?
A. Convert the opportunity to a quote
B. Create a new quote from the customer
C. Create a new quote from the opportunity
D. Create a new quote with the opportunity price list
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/developer/convert-opportunity-quote-sales-order-invoice

QUESTION 4
A company uses Dynamics 365 for Sales. The company has not made changes to any of the default security roles.
You need to ensure that users can assign salespeople to sales territories.
Which security role can you use?
A. Delegate
B. Sales Person
C. Sales Manager
D. System Customizer
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that answers each question based on the information presented
in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
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QUESTION 6
You manage a Dynamics 365 environment. A user named User1 begins work on an opportunity.
User1 asks a user named User2 to assist with the opportunity while she is on vacation.
You need to ensure that User2 can access the opportunity and that User1 retains ownership of the opportunity.
What should you do?
A. Share the record with User2
B. Grant User2 the stakeholder role
C. Grant User2 the security role
D. Instruct User2 to follow the record
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/developer/security-dev/use-record-based-security-control-access-records#sharing-records

QUESTION 7
You are a Dynamics 365 for Sales administrator.
The sales team is having difficulty locating related products.
You need to make it easier for the sales team to find groups of products that are similar.
What should you use?
A. Related products
B. Product bundles
C. Product families
D. Product unit groups
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/sales-enterprise/define-related-products-increase-chances-sales

QUESTION 8
You are a Dynamics 365 administrator.
You need to configure action cards in Relationship Assistant.
Which action card should you enable for each scenario? To answer, drag the appropriate action cards to the correct
scenarios. Each action card may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar
between
panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
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QUESTION 9
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the
review screen.
A customer recently visited one of your retail outlets. You created an opportunity for the customer for a large purchase.
The customer is now ready to complete the purchase.
You need to create a quote from the opportunity.
Solution: Convert the Opportunity to a quote.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/developer/convert-opportunity-quote-sales-order-invoice

QUESTION 10
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the
review screen.
You use business process flows for all Dynamics 365 opportunities.
Some opportunities are closed before business process flow durations are calculated.
You need to ensure that business process flow duration values are calculated.
Solution: On the last stage of the business process flow, select Finish.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the
review screen.
A company plans to move their headquarters from the United States to Europe.
You need to round all currency values to four decimal places and display the correct currency symbol.
Solution: Change the default currency.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
A company uses Dynamics 365 for Sales. The company has not made changes to any of the default security roles.
You need to ensure that users can assign salespeople to sales territories.
Which security role can you use?
A. Marketing Professional
B. Sales Person
C. Delegate
D. CEO ?Business Manager
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/admin/set-up-sales-territories-organize-business-markets-geographical-area

QUESTION 13
A company plans to close early on the last day of the month for an employee celebration.
You need to configure Dynamics 365 to prevent scheduling of sales support resources for that day.
Which feature should you use?
A. Events
B. Business closure
C. Fiscal calendar
D. Time off request
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/customer-service/set-when-business-closed-csh

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Free ECCouncil 312-50V10 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Internet Protocol Security IPSec is actually a suite of protocols. Each protocol within the suite provides different
functionality. Collective IPSec does everything except.
A. Work at the Data Link Layer
B. Protect the payload and the headers
C. Encrypt
D. Authenticate
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
It is a regulation that has a set of guidelines, which should be adhered to by anyone who handles any electronic medical
data. These guidelines stipulate that all medical practices must ensure that all necessary measures are in place while
saving, accessing, and sharing any electronic medical data to keep patient data secure.
Which of the following regulations best matches the description?
A. FISMA
B. ISO/IEC 27002
C. HIPAA
D. COBIT
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What attack is used to crack passwords by using a precomputed table of hashed passwords?
A. Brute Force Attack
B. Rainbow Table Attack
C. Dictionary Attack
D. Hybrid Attack
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
The collection of potentially actionable, overt, and publicly available information is known as
A. Open-source intelligence
B. Human intelligence
C. Social intelligence
D. Real intelligence
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
You are the Network Admin, and you get a compliant that some of the websites are no longer accessible. You try to ping
the servers and find them to be reachable. Then you type the IP address and then you try on the browser, and find it to
be accessible. But they are not accessible when you try using the URL.
What may be the problem?
A. Traffic is Blocked on UDP Port 53
B. Traffic is Blocked on UDP Port 80
C. Traffic is Blocked on UDP Port 54
D. Traffic is Blocked on UDP Port 80
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
An attacker scans a host with the below command. Which three flags are set? (Choose three.)
#nmap ?X host.domain.com
A. This is ACK scan. ACK flag is set
B. This is Xmas scan. SYN and ACK flags are set
C. This is Xmas scan. URG, PUSH and FIN are set
D. This is SYN scan. SYN flag is set
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
What is the difference between the AES and RSA algorithms?
A. Both are symmetric algorithms, but AES uses 256-bit keys
B. AES is asymmetric, which is used to create a public/private key pair; RSA is symmetric, which is used to encrypt
data
C. Both are asymmetric algorithms, but RSA uses 1024-bit keys
D. RSA is asymmetric, which is used to create a public/private key pair; AES is symmetric, which is used to encrypt
data
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Alice encrypts her data using her public key PK and stores the encrypted data in the cloud. Which of the following attack
scenarios will compromise the privacy of her data?
A. None of these scenarios compromise the privacy of Alice\\’s data
B. Agent Andrew subpoenas Alice, forcing her to reveal her private key. However, the cloud server successfully resists
Andrew\\’s attempt to access the stored data
C. Hacker Harry breaks into the cloud server and steals the encrypted data
D. Alice also stores her private key in the cloud, and Harry breaks into the cloud server as before
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Security Policy is a definition of what it means to be secure for a system, organization or other entity. For Information
Technologies, there are sub-policies like Computer Security Policy, Information Protection Policy, Information Security
Policy, network Security Policy, Physical Security Policy, Remote Access Policy, and User Account Policy.
What is the main theme of the sub-policies for Information Technologies?
A. Availability, Non-repudiation, Confidentiality
B. Authenticity, Integrity, Non-repudiation
C. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
D. Authenticity, Confidentiality, Integrity
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Based on the below log, which of the following sentences are true?
Mar 1, 2016, 7:33:28 AM 10.240.250.23 ?54373 10.249.253.15 ?22 tcp_ip
A. SSH communications are encrypted it\\’s impossible to know who is the client or the server
B. Application is FTP and 10.240.250.23 is the client and 10.249.253.15 is the server
C. Application is SSH and 10.240.250.23 is the client and 10.249.253.15 is the server
D. Application is SSH and 10.240.250.23 is the server and 10.249.253.15 is the server
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
The company ABC recently contracted a new accountant. The accountant will be working with the financial statements.
Those financial statements need to be approved by the CFO and then they will be sent to the accountant but the CFO is
worried because he wants to be sure that the information sent to the accountant was not modified once he approved it.
What is the following options can be useful to ensure the integrity of the data?
A. The CFO can use a hash algorithm in the document once he approved the financial statements
B. The CFO can use an excel file with a password
C. The financial statements can be sent twice, one by email and the other delivered in USB and the accountant can
compare both to be sure is the same document
D. The document can be sent to the accountant using an exclusive USB for that document
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Sophia travels a lot and worries that her laptop containing confidential documents might be stolen. What is the best
protection that will work for her?
A. Full Disk encryption
B. BIOS password
C. Hidden folders
D. Password protected files
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
What mechanism in Windows prevents a user from accidentally executing a potentially malicious batch (.bat) or
PowerShell (.ps1) script?
A. User Access Control (UAC)
B. Data Execution Prevention (DEP)
C. Address Space Layout Randomization (ASLR)
D. Windows firewall
Correct Answer: B

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Latest Citrix 1y0-402 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a new XenApp and XenDesktop environment.
The architect has determined the applications and characteristics listed in the Exhibit during the application
assessment.
Click the Exhibit button to view the list of applications and characteristics.lead4pass 1y0-402 exam question q1

To which application category does Application1 belong, based on the information provided in the Exhibit?
A. Management Apps B. Common Apps
C. User Apps
D. Departmental Apps
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a new XenApp and XenDesktop environment.
The architect has identified the User Layer requirements, as shown in the Exhibit.
Click the Exhibit button to view the requirements.lead4pass 1y0-402 exam question q2

Additionally, management at the organization has identified the following general Access Layer requirements:
A multi-factor authentication method is required for any connections to the XenApp and XenDesktop environment
originating from outside the corporate network.
External connections must be authenticated by a NetScaler Gateway virtual server located in a DMZ network.
Internal connection traffic should NOT leave the internal corporate network.
Which authentication method should the architect use for the Accountants group?
A. Username and password
B. Federated Authentication Service
C. LDAP and RADIUS
D. Smart Card
E. Domain pass-through
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
Scenario: At a consumer goods company, a XenApp 6.5 environment is hosted on XenServer 6.5. The IT team is
migrating to XenApp and Desktop service on Citrix Cloud. Server OS machines will be hosted on-premises and Desktop
OS machines will be hosted on Microsoft Azure.
Which Citrix Smart Tool can reduce the cost of running XenApp and XenDesktop in public clouds?
A. Smart Check
B. Smart Migrate
C. Smart Build
D. Smart Scale
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 4
Scenario: While assessing the User Layer, a Citrix Architect finds that most of the internal users connect using
corporate-owned laptops, desktop devices, and thin clients. Many of these laptops and desktop devices are running
Windows 10, while the remainder of the machines are running Windows 7 and are in the process of being migrated to
Windows 10. Some users also connect using personal devices.
Currently, Citrix Receiver is manually installed on any endpoint device added to the company. All these devices use
Citrix Receiver version 4.8 and above. The IT team is planning to automate a process to update all the devices with the
latest version of Citrix Receiver and to automate another process for automatic installation of Citrix Receiver without
incurring extra costs and maintenance.
What should the architect recommend to upgrade Citrix Receivers for internal Windows endpoints?
A. The use of deployment tools for internal endpoints.
B. The deployment of Enterprise software.
C. Configure Receiver auto-updates through Citrix Cloud.
D. Edit the Web.config file and set upgradeAtLogin to True.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
Scenario: A Citrix Architect is designing an environment for a large company. The company has identified the following
user groups and requirements.
Product Managers – Typically, they work from inside the company network but are able to work from home. They need
to use a variety of standard productivity and
web-based SaaS applications.
Field Sales Engineers – They frequently work with mobile devices and tend to access the environment externally. They
need access to sales tools and the frontend of the customer database.
Web Developers – Internal and remote workers who use specialized hardware with a graphics card to handle resourceintensive applications.
Which FlexCast model should the architect assign to Web Developers?
A. VM Hosted Applications
B. Published Apps
C. Published Desktops
D. Hosted VDI
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6
Scenario: A Citrix Architect is investigating a recent change that is impacting system performance of the Provisioning
Services farm. However, no actions have been recorded in the Audit Trail.
Which two processes are preventing Provisioning Services auditing from recording the actions? (Choose two.)
A. The change was completed through the SCCM integration.
B. A task was performed using Provisioning Services PowerShell interface.
C. A task was performed using Management Command Line Interface (MCLI).
D. The Provisioning Services database was unavailable.
E. Auditing is disabled by default.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 7
Scenario: A Citrix Architect is performing a XenApp and XenDesktop design. During a discussion with the server
hardware team, two potential network configurations are proposed for the XenServer hosts.
Click the Exhibit button to view the network configurations.lead4pass 1y0-402 exam question q7

Which statement will support a decision to use Network Configuration 1?
A. It will ensure that virtual machine workloads do NOT interfere with each other.
B. It will provide greater security for all traffic types.
C. It will achieve a higher level of redundancy for the different traffic types.
D. It will reserve more bandwidth for virtual machine traffic.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 8
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to manage the disaster recovery process for a XenApp and XenDesktop environment.
The environment currently consists of an active datacenter which is typically accessed by used and a disaster recovery
(DR) datacenter which would be used in the event that a disaster impacts the primary datacenter. The overall
environment has been designed to actively replicate user data and application data from the primary datacenter
recovery datacenter using Microsoft DFS-R. Management has made it a proirity to minimize the loss of data when failing
over between datacenters. Due to an earthquake, the primary datacenter suffers a major outage that affects multiple
components. Management has decided to fail over the DR datacenter, and the architect has blocked access to the
primary datacenter to prevent new attempts to connect to the XenApp and XenDesktop Site there.
Which three actions must the architect perform to meet the company priorities before enabling access to the DR
datacenter? (Choose three.)
A. Complete data replication from the primary datacenter to the DR datacenter.
B. Monitor the automated failover process.
C. Transport backup data repositories to the DR datacanter.
D. Codifier data replication from the DR datacenter to the primary datacenter.
E. Drain existing sessions from the primary datacenter.
F. Evaluate the condition of the XenApp and XenDesktop environment in the primary datacenter.
Correct Answer: ABD

 

QUESTION 9
Scenario: IT management has decided which server hardware model to use for new XenApp and XenDesktop Sites and
needs guidance on sizing the Hardware
Layer.
Click the Exhibit to view the host details.lead4pass 1y0-402 exam question q9

A Citrix Architect is planning to install XenServer 7.x on this host.
How many vCPUs will be available to the XenServer host?
A. 8
B. 24
C. 32
D. 16
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 10
Scenario: IT management has decided which server hardware model to use for new XenApp and XenDesktop Sites and
needs guidance on sizing the Hardware Layer.
Click the Exhibit button to view the host details.lead4pass 1y0-402 exam question q10

A Citrix Architect is planning to install XenServer 7.x on this host which will be used to host only XenApp servers.
How many XenApp servers can the architect deploy on the host if the plan includes allotting each XenApp server 4
vCPUs, considering the over subscription ratio?
A. 12
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 11
Scenario: IT management has decided which server hardware model to use for new XenApp and XenDesktop Sites and
needs guidance on sizing the Hardware Layer.
Click the Exhibit button to view the host details.lead4pass 1y0-402 exam question q11

A Citrix Architect is planning to install XenServer 7.x on this host which will be used to host only XenApp servers.
How many vCPUs should be consumed to deploy XenApp servers with high performance, considering the oversubscription ratio?
A. 32
B. 24
C. 16
D. 48
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a new XenApp and XenDesktop environment. The customer previously
installed all applications locally on managed laptops and desktops but is willing to evaluate other application delivery
methods as part of the new deployment. The environment will be standardized on Windows 10 and Windows Server
2016 for the Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machines.
As part of an application analysis performed earlier in the project, the information shown in the Exhibit was collected
regarding one of the required applications.
Click the Exhibit button to view the information.lead4pass 1y0-402 exam question q12

Additionally, the customer has the following objectives:
Minimize the amount of additional infrastructure components.
Utilize thin clients as endpoints in order to reduce costs.
Users should NOT have direct access to the thin client operating system.
How should the architect install the application?
A. Directly on a VDA machine image and accessed through a virtual desktop session
B. On an Application Layer using Citrix App Layering and included in a layered image and accessed through a virtual
desktop session
C. Directly on endpoint devices and included in a virtual desktop session using the Local App Access feature
D. Stream it to a VDA machine using Microsoft App-V and accessed through a virtual desktop session
E. On an Application Layer using Citrix App Layering then presented to assigned users as an Elastic Layer during a
virtual desktop session
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 13
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a multi-datacenter XenApp and XenDesktop environment that will use
Provisioning Services (PVS) to manage Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machine images. Each datacenter will have a
separate Provisioning Services farm. During the design discussions, the architect creates a diagram to depict the way
vDisk files will be replicated between PVS farms, based on the available storage for the vDisk Stores.
Click the Exhibit button to view the diagram.lead4pass 1y0-402 exam question q13

Overall, the customer has identified the following objectives for the image replication process:
Minimize the administrative time required to replicate images between farms Must be usable by PVS farm
administrators based on native tools Minimize network traffic between datacenters
Which method should the architect use to replicate the vDisk files between datacenters?
A. SAN replication
B. Scheduled robocopy commands
C. Microsoft DFS-R
D. vDisk Replicator Tool
E. Manual copy
Correct Answer: D

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Latest Citrix 1Y0-204 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to configure StoreFront to allow external users access to internal resources. The
external users will authenticate on StoreFront. Which StoreFront authentication method can the administrator
configure?
A. Smart card
B. Pass-through from NetScaler Gateway
C. HTTP Basic
D. Username and password
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/storefront/current-release/plan/user-authentication.html

QUESTION 2
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is required to maximize the usage of the Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops Site by
enabling users to access the Site from external devices and reducing the cost and the effort required to maintain the
infrastructure. The desktops for the users are provisioned using Citrix Provisioning.
Which set of resources will enable the administrator to achieve the objective?
A. Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops service, Citrix Gateway service, on-premises resources
B. Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops service, Citrix Gateway, public cloud
C. Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops service, Citrix Gateway, on-premises resources
D. Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops service, Citrix Gateway service, public cloud
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator has executed the following command:lead4pass 1y0-204 exam question q3

What will be the outcome of this configuration?
A. The users trying to access HTTP://SERVER.CITRIX.LAB will NOT be connected to the Vserver MYVPN_http.
B. The users trying to access HTTP://SERVER.CITRIX.LAB will be connected to the Vserver MYVPN_http.
C. The users trying to access http://server.citrix.lab will be connected to CS Vserver Vserver-CS-1.
D. The users trying to access HTTP://SERVER.CITRIX.LAB will be connected to CS Vserver Vserver-CS-1.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Scenario: A Ctrix Administrator currently manages a Citrix ADC environment in a retail company that is growing quickly
and may soon double its volume of business. Currently, a Citrix ADC MPX 5550, which handles web and SSL
transactions, is in place, but is close to full capacity. Due to the forecasted growth increase, the administrator needs to
find a cost effective solution.
What can the administrator recommend to management in order to cost effectively handle the growth?
A. Another MPX 5550 appliance
B. Performance hardware upgrade to Citrix ADC SDX 14100
C. Perform license upgrade to Citrix ADC MPX 5650
D. Perform hardware upgrade to Citrix ADC MPX 8005
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
In a Global Server Load Balancing (GSLB) Active/Active environment, the connection proxy is used as the site
persistence method. What is used to source the traffic when connection is proxied?
A. Client source IP
B. LDNS IP Address
C. Virtual IP (VIP)
D. Subnet IP (SNIP)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator created an SSL virtual server using only the following commands:lead4pass 1y0-204 exam question q6

The SSL virtual server is currently in a DOWN state.
What could be the reason the SSL virtual server is in a down state?
A. The SSL services are NOT on the 10.102.29.X network.
B. SSLv3 is disabled.
C. The virtual server SSL port is NOT set to port 443.
D. The SSL Certificate is NOT bound to the virtual server.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
A Citrix Administrator needs to block access to multiple URLs for security reasons.
Which configuration should the administrator use to accomplish this requirement?lead4pass 1y0-204 exam question q7

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
A user calls the help desk and states that launching a pooled random desktop takes as long as five minutes. Which
Citrix Director report can a Citrix Administrator review to find out what might be causing the delay?
A. Resource Utilization
B. Connection Failures
C. Logon Performance
D. Load Evaluators
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which tool should a Citrix Administrator use when a user reports “event ID 1022: The Citrix Desktop Service Failed to
register with any controller”?
A. HDX Monitor
B. VDA Cleanup Utility
C. Citrix Scout
D. Citrix Health Assistant
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://support.citrix.com/article/CTX133769
QUESTION 10
A Citrix Administrator is in the process of installing Citrix Cloud Connector, but the installation fails. What could be
causing the Citrix Cloud Connector installation to fail on the machine?
A. It is in sync with UTC time instead of local time.
B. Enhanced Security Configuration (ESC) is set to \\’off\\’.
C. It cannot run on a machine template cloned across multiple machines.
D. It is NOT joined to the domain.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is configuring a Citrix ADC high availability (HA) pair with an existing Primary Citrix ADC
with all resources configured. The administrator added the Secondary Citrix ADC in high availability and found that the
configuration on the existing primary was removed. It is now the Secondary Citrix ADC in the HA pair.
Which two configurations could the administrator have made to prevent this from happening? (Choose two.)
A. Enable HA monitoring on all the interfaces of the SECONDARY device.
B. Set the Secondary Citrix ADC to STAY SECONDARY in the Configure HA Node settings.
C. Set the Primary Citrix ADC to STAY PRIMARY in the Configure HA Node settings.
D. Enable HA monitoring on all the interfaces of the PRIMARY device.
Correct Answer: CD
Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/ja-jp/netscaler/11/system/high-availability-introduction/forcing-the-primary-node-stayprimary.html

QUESTION 12
For which three components can Citrix Director capture utilization statistics? (Choose three.)
A. CPU
B. IOPS
C. Disk space
D. Network
E. Memory
Correct Answer: ABE
Reference: https://www.citrix.com/blogs/2016/06/13/citrix-director-cpu-memory-usage-and-process-information/

QUESTION 13
What must a Citrix Administrator do to encrypt XML traffic between StoreFront and the Delivery Controllers?
A. Install a private server certificate on each StoreFront server and then add a new Internet Information Services (IIS)
binding for HTTPS.
B. Install a private server certificate on each Delivery Controller and bind the certificates to port 443.
C. Install a private certificate on each Delivery Controller and StoreFront server. Restart each server to force XML
communication to be encrypted.
D. Install a private server certificate on each StoreFront server. Open the StoreFront console and use the https:// prefix
with the base URL.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.jgspiers.com/securing-ddc-xml-broker-communication-over-https/

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following is the correct energy expenditure in METs associated with an exercise oxygen uptake of 28
ml?g-1?in-1?
A. 8
B. 10
C. 98
D. 112
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
Immediately following a chest and shoulder workout a 55-year-old male executive complains of a “dull ache” in the left
side of the chest that is aggravated by respiration. What would you consider is the source of the pain?
A. Cardiac
B. Muscular
C. Respiratory
D. Soreness
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
Which of the following exercises is contraindicated by the American College of Sports Medicine?
A. Pelvic tilt
B. Trunk extensions
C. Seated hip/trunk flexion
D. Unsupported hip/trunk flexion
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 4
Determining an organization\\’s guiding principles and goals is one element of ______.
A. strategic planning
B. risk management
C. leadership behaviors
D. facility management
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
As described by the American College of Sports Medicine, proper technique during the push-up test involves _____.
A. timing the number of push-ups performed in two minutes
B. requiring both female and male subjects to use the toes as the pivotal point of movement
C. allowing a slight (20? elbow flexion at the”;to”; of the movement
D. stopping the test when the subject strains forcibly
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6
Mitral valve prolapse is a condition which primarily affects the .
A. Sino-atrial node.
B. Bicuspid valve.
C. Tricuspid valve.
D. Descending aorta.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 7
Your new client is a 42 year old male who is a stock broker. His health history revealed the following: total cholesterol
185 mg/dL (4.7 mmol/L), HDL 32 mg/dL (0.8 mmol/L), LDL 110 mg/dL (2.8 mmol/L), resting blood pressure 138/80 mm
Hg, waist circumference 98 centimeters. Based on the client\\’s initial risk classification, what is the most appropriate
suggestion for the client regarding his exercise program?
A. Begin a low intensity exercise program until medical clearance is obtained.
B. Begin a vigorous exercise program immediately.
C. Refrain from all activity until medical clearance is obtained.
D. Require a maximal graded exercise test prior to starting the exercise program.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
What is the variability for any given age, when estimating a client\\’s age-predicted maximum heart rate?
A. 2 to 4 beats per minute
B. 10 to 12 beats per minute
C. 18 to 20 beats per minute
D. 22 to 24 beats per minute
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 9
Which of the following is a potential danger of long-term consumption of a high-protein diet?
A. Zinc becomes less absorbable
B. Calcium is drawn from the bones and excreted in the urine
C. Iron levels drop causing anemia
D. Sodium is lost in the sweat causing hyponatremia
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
Which of the following recommendations would you make to your client who plans on playing tennis on a very hot and
humid afternoon?
A. Consume 2 – 3 salt tablets per hour.
B. Consume 2 – 3 grams of protein per kilogram of body weight.
C. Consume fluids at temperatures of 15 to 22.2 degrees Celsius (59-72 degrees Fahrenheit).
D. Consume 5 – 6 grams of carbohydrates per kilogram of body weight.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
What does waist to hip ratio assess?
A. Frame size
B. Weight relative to height
C. Distribution of body weight
D. The amount of subcutaneous fat
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
What cardiovascular adaptations occur as a result of chronic aerobic exercise in a previously sedentary individual?
A. Resting heart rate and resting blood pressure are reduced.
B. Resting heart rate and maximal heart rate decline.
C. Maximal heart rate increases but maximal blood pressure stays the same.
D. Resting heart rate and resting blood pressure stay the same, but maximal heart rate and maximal blood pressure are
reduced.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
What is the correct order of the regions of the spinal column, from superior to inferior?
A. Cervical, lumbar, thoracic, sacral and coccyx.
B. Coccyx, sacral, lumbar, thoracic, and cervical.
C. Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, coccyx, and sacral.
D. Cervical, thoracic, lumbar,sacral, and coccyx.
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Which is the day count/annual basis convention for SGD money market deposits?
A. ACT/365
B. ACT/360
C. ACT/ACT
D. 30E/360
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
You have taken 3-month (92 days) deposits of CAD 12,000,000.00 at 1.10% and CAD 6,000,000.00 at 1.04%. Minutes
later, you quote 3-month CAD 1.09-14% to another bank. The other dealer takes the CAD 18,000,000.00 at your quoted
price. What is your profit or loss on this deal?
A. CAD 2,722.19
B. CAD 460.00
C. CAD 3,220.00
D. CAD 2,760.00
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Whose compliance rules, regulations and best practices should be followed in FX electronic trading?
A. solely those of the electronic trading platforms vendors
B. exclusively ACI\\’s Model Code Best Practices
C. ACI\\’s Model Code Best Practices and ICMA\\’s Market Practice and Regulatory Policy
D. the electronic trading platforms vendors\\’ and the ACIs Model Code Best Practices guidelines
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
What is the Overnight Index for GBP?
A. SONIA
B. STINA
C. STONIA
D. EONIA
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
You bought a EUR 8,000,000 6×9 FRA at 4.50%. The settlement rate is 3-month (90-day) EURIBOR, which is fixed at
3.50%. What is the settlement amount at maturity?
A. You pay EUR 20,000.00
B. You receive EUR 20,000.00
C. You pay EUR 19,826.52
D. You receive EUR 19,826.52
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
The major difference between futures and OTC instruments like FRAs and interest rate swaps is that futures are:
A. Exchange-traded
B. Guaranteed
C. Standardised
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Voice-brokers in spot FX are remunerated with:
A. Commission paid by both parties at rates agreed beforehand
B. A fee paid by the seller
C. Bid/offer spread
D. A share of the bid/offer spread
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
What does the Model Code say about netting?
A. Market participants are strongly recommended to net bilateral transactions with counterparties where activity justifies
it.
B. Market participants should establish payments netting agreements with cross-border counterparties where activity
justifies it.
C. Market participants should establish legally viable bilateral netting agreements with counterparties where activity
justifies it.
D. Market participants should establish legally viable multilateral netting agreements where activity justifies it.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which one of the following statements about “CLS rescinds” is correct?
A. CLS settlement members may rescind instructions unilaterally provided that the rescind messages reach the CLS
Bank before the 00:00 CET deadline.
B. CLS settlement members may rescind instructions unilaterally provided that the rescind messages reach the CLS
Bank before the 06:30 CET deadline.
C. CLS settlement members may rescind instructions bilaterally only if the rescind messages reach the CLS Bank
before the 00:00 CET deadline.
D. CLS settlement members may rescind instructions bilaterally only if the rescind messages reach the CLS Bank after
the 06:30 CET deadline.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
For which country\\’s currency is ZAR the ISO code?
A. Saudi Arabia
B. South Africa
C. Zimbabwe
D. Zambia
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which of the following statements does not explain why banks accept some amount of interest rate risk?
A. In their function as intermediaries, banks must necessarily accept some degree of interest rate risk.
B. Banks incur interest rate risk to increase income
C. Banks prefer c red it risk to market risk.
D. If banks failed to take on interest rate risk they would not be able to meet the needs of their deposit and loan
customers.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
If manual trade capture methods are used, when should deals be recorded in systems used for this purpose?
A. The same day they are dealt
B. Promptly
C. Within 24 hours of execution
D. Within an hour of execution
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
If spot USD/HKD is 7.7600 and USD/SGD is 1.2350, what is SGD/HKD?
A. 9.5836
B. 6.2834
C. 0.1591
D. 0.1043
Correct Answer: B

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Nokia Scalable IP Networks | Nokia Networks: https://networks.nokia.com/src/exam/scalable-ip-networks

Latest updates Alcatel-Lucent 4A0-100 exam practice questions(1-10)

QUESTION 1
What is the purpose of the Data Link Layer in the OSI model?
A. The Data Link Layer is responsible for encapsulating the packet into a frame for transmission on the transmission
media.
B. The Data Link Layer is responsible for encapsulating the packet into an IP header and routing the packet.
C. The Data Link Layer is responsible for formatting the packet for applications such as JPEG format.
D. The Data Link Layer is responsible for timing of the signals on the transmission media
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A set of tasks that move a packet from its entry into an IP network to its exit from the IP network. This describes:
A. IP routing.
B. IP protocol.
C. IP encapsulation.
D. IP tunneling.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
What is the purpose of the source and destination ports in the TCP header?
A. These ports identify the physical location of the sender and the receiver on the IP router.
B. These ports are used as addresses to communicate with the IP layer.
C. TCP does not use source or destination ports.
D. These ports are used as an address to identify the upper layer application using the TCP connection.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
What distance is supported using CAT-5 cabling for 10/100/1000 TX?
A. 100 m.
B. 500 m.
C. 1 Km.
D. 10 Km.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
The sequence numbers are used by TCP to ensure that the data receive is provided to the application in the correct
order.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
What is the sequence of messages sent by a host when it attempts to ping a destination for which it has no Address
Resolution Protocol (ARP) cache entry?
A. ICMP echo request, ARP request, ARP reply, ICMP echo reply.
B. ARP request, ARP reply, ICMP echo request, ICMP echo reply.
C. ICMP echo request, ICMP echo reply, ARP request, ARP reply.
D. ICMP echo request, ARP reply, ARP request, ICMP echo reply.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Based on the network diagram, (click on exhibit) what is the command to use on CR1 to setup a default static route to
R1?lead4pass 4a0-100 exam question q7

A. config router static-route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 10.2.3.2
B. config router static-route 0.0.0.0 next-hop 10.2.3.2
C. config router static-route 10.2.3.2 next-hop 0.0.0.0/0
D. config router default-route 10.2.3.2
E. config router static-route 0.0.0.0 next-hop 192.168.2.0
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
A 24 port Ethernet switch is configured with VLAN 100 on ports 1 – 8, VLAN 200 on ports 9 – 16 and VLAN 300 on ports
17 – 24.
Which of the following describes the behavior of the switch when a broadcast frame is received on port 1?
A. The switch will discard the broadcast frame because there is no specific destination address.
B. The switch will flood the broadcast frame on all ports on which the switch has seen frames from attached devices
C. The switch will flood the broadcast frame on ports 2 to 8.
D. The switch will flood the broadcast frame on all 24 ports.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which of the following Nokia 7750 SR components is NOT part of the data plane?
A. The Media Dependent Adapter (MDA)
B. The Input/ Output Module (IOM)
C. The Switch Fabric (SF)
D. The Control Processor Module (CPM)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which of the following statements BEST describes the purpose of UDP (Select two)?
A. Provide a connectionless delivery service.
B. Provide a connection oriented delivery service.
C. Provide an unreliable transmission service.
D. Provide a reliable transmission service.
Correct Answer: AC

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Nokia Virtual Private Routed Networks:https://networks.nokia.com/src/exam/virtual-private-routed-networks

Latest updates Alcatel-Lucent 4A0-106 exam practice questions (1-10)

QUESTION 1
Which of the following terms also correctly describes a Layer 3 VPN?(Choose three)
A. VPRN
B. BGP/MPLS VPN
C. VLL
D. VPLS
E. IP-VPN
F. ePipe
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 2
Which of the following describes the goal of an Extranet VPRN?
A. To reduce the number of VPRN tunnels required.
B. To allow routes to be exchanged between all, or selected, sites of one VPRN, and all, or selected, sites of a second
VPRN.
C. To simplify the administration of multiple VPRNs.
D. To allow network access between the headquarter sites of each VPRN service and a shared VPRN service offered
by a third party.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
What is wrong with the configuration shown below?
A. The VPRN ID must be the same value as is used in the vrf-target command
B. The VPRN ID must be the same value as is used in the route-distinguisher command
C. The router-id command should not be used in this context
D. The vrf-target command is mandatory
E. There is nothing wrong with this configuration
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 4
What is the minimum number of Route Distinguishers required to implement an overlapping VPRN involving 5 different
customers?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 7
E. 10
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which of the following about eiBGP Load Balancing is FALSE?
A. ecmp and multipath must be configured within the VPRN instance.
B. The RD of the VPRN on the local PE must be different from the RD of the remote PEs.
C. Is enabled in the config>router>bgp context
D. Allows a PE router to load share traffic across routes learned from both direct CE-PE peerings and MP-BGP
peerings.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Click the exhibit.lead4pass 4a0-106 exam question q6

For the inter-AS model B VPRN, which of the following is TRUE when CE2 sends an IP packet to 192.168.1.1?
A. PE2 pushes one label on the IP packet and forwards it to ASBR2.
B. ASBR2 sends the IP packet with one label to ASBR1.
C. ASBR1 sends the IP packet with one label to PE1.
D. PE1 pops one label off the IP packet and forwards it to CE1.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Click the exhibit.lead4pass 4a0-106 exam question q7

A Carrier Supporting Carrier (CSC) VPRN is configured on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR for a customer carrier offering
VPRN services. Which of the following about this configuration is FALSE?
A. In the CSC VPRN, configure an eBGP session between CSC-PE and CSC-CE and use the “advertise-label vpn-ipv4”
CLI command to enable the advertisement of VPN-IPv4 routes.
B. When the customer carrier uses the same autonomous system number in various sites, use the “loop-detect off” CLI
command to disable the loop detection functionality on CSC-CE and PE routers.
C. On the CSC-PE routers, use the “carrier-carrier-vpn” CLI command to configure the VPRN service as CSC.
D. Configure an iBGP session between PE1 and PE2 and use the “family vpn-ipv4” CLI command to directly exchange
end-customer routes learned from CE1 and CE2.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which of the following about BGP Site of Origin (SoO) is FALSE?
A. The SoO attribute can be used to uniquely identify the site from which a PE learns routes.
B. Before a PE redistributes a VPN-IPv4 route, it can assign an SoO attribute to the route.
C. The SoO attribute can be used to prevent loops from a single site with multiple CE-PE connections.
D. The SoO attribute can be used as matching criteria when redistributing routes from the CE to the PE.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Click the exhibit.lead4pass 4a0-106 exam question q9

An Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR is to be configured as a PE router that supports VPRNs using LDP as the transport protocol.
Which of the following best describes this configuration?
A. This configuration is correct and complete.
B. This configuration is correct, except that the system interface must be added.
C. This configuration is correct, except that the interfaces facing the CE routers must be added.
D. MPLS configuration is not required.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
What are the two primary problems the service provider must consider when providing traditional Layer 3 VPN services
using only a single common routing table in the provider core? (Choose two)
A. Memory exhaustion in the provider core
B. Route leaking between the customer networks
C. CPU utilization for route processing
D. Unwanted packet forwarding between customer networks
Correct Answer: BD

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Nokia NRS II Composite Exam:https://networks.nokia.com/src/exam/c01

Latest updates Alcatel-Lucent 4A0-C01 exam practice questions (1-10)

QUESTION 1
What distinguishes a VPLS service from a VPWS service?
A. VPLS supports point-to-point connections.
B. VPLS supports multipoint-to-multipoint connections
C. VPLS supports a distributed service
D. VPLS supports a local service on a single node.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which of the following statements are FALSE regarding the VPN-IPv4 address family? (Choose 2)
A. When a PE router receives an IPv4 prefix from its local CE it creates a VPN-IPv4 prefix.
B. The route distinguisher (RD) is appended to the IPv4 prefix to form a 16 byte VPN-IPv4 prefix.
C. VPN-IPv4 allows BGP to distinguish multiple routes with the same prefixes originated from distinct customers
D. VPN-IPv4 addresses are only present within the service provider network.
E. In VPRN, data traffic is carried in VPN-IPv4 packets.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 3
Click on the exhibit.lead4pass 4A0-C01 exam question q3

192.168.3.1 is a loopback interface on router R2 and is distributed to OSPF area 0, but the ping fails from router R3.
Which of the following is a possible solution to the problem?
A. Add “stub no summaries” to the area 1 configuration on router R1.
B. Add the “originate-default-route” option in the area 1 configuration on router R1.
C. Add a default static route on router R3.
D. Include the system interface in the area 1 configuration on router R3.
E. Add a static route on router R3 to 192.168.3.1.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which of the following about an LSP protected with facility FRR is TRUE?
A. The LSP can use protection tunnels used by other LSPs.
B. The LSP can use facility and one-to-one FRR simultaneously.
C. The LSP is limited to link protection.
D. A detour protection tunnel is created for this LSP.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Click the exhibit.lead4pass 4A0-C01 exam question q5

Based on the output shown, what is the value of the service\\’s VC ID?
A. 2
B. 12
C. 30
D. 44
E. 100
F. The VC ID Cannot be determined from the output
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which of the following best describes an IES?
A. Layer 3 direct Internet access service.
B. Layer 2 point-to-point service.
C. Layer 2 multipoint-to-multipoint service.
D. Layer 3 IP multipoint-to-multipoint VPN service.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which of the following best describes how IS-IS routers exchange updates on an Ethernet interface?
A. IS-IS routers exchange updates by sending UDP packets to a multicast address.
B. IS-IS routers exchange updates using IP multicast packets.
C. IS-IS routers exchange updates using Ethernet multicast packets.
D. IS-IS routers exchange updates by sending packets to the subnet broadcast address.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
What is the significance of receiving a packet with the bottom MPLS label S bit set to 1?
A. It results in forwarding based on the next packet header.
B. It indicates that the label is the bottom of the MPLS label stack.
C. It indicates that the label is the top of the MPLS label stack.
D. Any LSR that receives an S bit set to 1 must discard the packet.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Router R2 advertises an OSPF summary route 10.10.10.0/24 into Area 1. Router R3 receives labels for individual FECs
10.10.10.2/32 and 10.10.10.4/32. These two FECs are installed in router R3\\’s LIB but not in the LFIB. What needs to
be done on router R3 to install these labels into its LFIB?lead4pass 4A0-C01 exam question q9

A. Disable route summarization on router R3.
B. Enable LDP aggregate prefix match.
C. Create an import policy to accept 10.10.10.2/32 and 10.10.10.4/32.
D. Disable LDP exact match on 10.10.10.2/32 and 10.10.10.4/32.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
In IS-IS database synchronization, each router compares each LSP described in the received CSNPs with the LSPs in
its own database. Which of the following actions is taken if the database contains a newer copy of the LSP?
A. The router sends a copy of the LSP from its database to its neighbor
B. The router sends a PSNP to its neighbor describing the LSP in its database.
C. The router updates its database with the LSP and floods a copy to its other neighbors.
D. The router sends a PSNP to its neighbor to request the LSP.
Correct Answer: A

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Latest updates Cisco 500-651 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
How many web requests does Talos process per month?
A. 1.5 million
B. 100,000
C. 130 billion
D. 130 million
Correct Answer: C
ASAS Cisco Security and Threat Landscape Module 1

QUESTION 2
Which Cisco solution falls under cloud security?
A. Umbrella
B. Identity Services Engine
C. Firepower Threat Defense
D. Cisco Defense Orchestrator
Correct Answer: D
ASAS Cisco Cloud Security SE ?Module 3

QUESTION 3
How is Cisco Security able to dynamically add IP addresses of known malware domains to its list of ports to detect and
block?
A. Reputation Filtering
B. Layer-4 Monitoring
C. Data Loss Prevention
D. URL Filtering
Correct Answer: B
ASAS Security Web and Email SE Module 2


QUESTION 4
Which feature of ISE combines user identification with robust context sharing platform to prevent inappropriate access?
A. Centralized policy management
B. Context-aware access
C. Patch management
D. Platform exchange grid
Correct Answer: B
ASAS Policy and Access SE Module 5

QUESTION 5
Which are three main features of the Meraki MX discussed in Cloud App Security module? (Choose three)
A. Cloud-Brokered VPN
B. Posture Assessment
C. Intrusion Prevention
D. Email Security
E. Profiling
F. Next Generation Firewall
Correct Answer: CEF

QUESTION 6
What is a key difference between Basic Data Loss Prevention and Advanced Data Loss Prevention?
A. Providing content analysis
B. Instant visibility
C. Dynamic outbreak considerations
D. Ability to filter in real-time
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which two Cisco products are a part of the “endpoints” threat-centric solution module? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Umbrella
B. Cisco Defense Orchestrator
C. Cisco VPN 3000
D. Cisco Stealthwatch
E. Cisco AMP for Endpoints
Correct Answer: AE
ASAS Security Threat Centric Solutions – AM and SE Module

QUESTION 8
Which feature of Cisco ISE uses Cisco TrustSec Security Group Tags 10 edit networks dynamically rather than with
VLANs?
A. Device profiting and onboarding
B. Role and device segmentation
C. Guest Access
D. Secure remote access
Correct Answer: B
ASAS Policy and Access SE Module 5

QUESTION 9
What is a main benefit of Cisco\\’s Clouldlock Data Loss Prevention feature?
A. Reduces cost with easy implementation and installation
B. Provides in depth cloud app analytics and tracking
C. Allow organizations to retroactively identify malware within their environment
D. Includes 70+ out of the box policies for enforcement, such as PCI, HIPAA, etc
Correct Answer: D
ASAS Cisco Cloud Security SE – Module 3

QUESTION 10
Which Cisco product included in the Endpoint threat-centric solution?
A. Umbrella
B. ASAv
C. Meraki MX
D. Cloudlock
Correct Answer: A
ASAS Security Threat Centric Solutions – AM and SE Module 7

QUESTION 11
Which license subscription terms are available for AMP licensing?
A. 1 month 3 months 6 months
B. 1 year. 5 years. 10 years
C. 5 years 10 years 30 years
D. 1 year. 3 years. 6 years
Correct Answer: D
ASA Security Advanced Threats SE Module 6

QUESTION 12
How does AMP\\’s device trajectory capabilities help address customer s issues?
A. It determines the scope and cause of an outbreak and tracks suspicious files
B. It searches for potential threats based on identified activities and behaviors
C. It isolates suspicious files and runs them in a sandbox environment to determine their authenticity
D. It analyses the data from suspicious files to provide a new level of threat intelligence
Correct Answer: C
ASAS Security Advanced Threats SE Module 6

QUESTION 13
Which are two features of Cisco FirePOWER NGFW? (Choose two.)
A. Next generation IPS to detect intrusions and prevent threats
B. URL filtering to restrict access to specific sites and sub-sites
C. Data Loss Prevention
D. Increased IT management needs
Correct Answer: AB

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This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of identifying customer and application requirements, applying predictive wireless design principles and conducting site surveys needed to design and optimize Enterprise wireless networks.

Latest updates Cisco 300-360 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
An engineer is determining powering requirements for a P2P wireless link using Cisco Aironet 1572EC access points.
Which power method is valid for the access point?
A. 802.3af Power over Ethernet
B. Power over Cable
C. Cisco Inline Power
D. 802.3at Power over Ethernet
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
Which description of Cisco Centralized Key Management is true?
A. It allows the wireless infrastructure to cache the credentials, which eliminates the need to conduct a full
reauthentication when roaming.
B. By caching their credentials, it helps clients save scanning time when looking for a new AP to join.
C. It allows wireless clients to cache their credentials so that, while they are roaming, they don\\’t need to reauthenticate
to the wireless infrastructure.
D. It enables the controller to send directed roam requests to a client in situations when the controller can better service
the client on a different AP than the one to which the client is associated.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
When a post-installation audit is performed using the Ekahau Survey tool, which two steps are associated with the
passive portion of the audit? (Choose two.)
A. Check to see if the signal levels on other access points that are heard on the same channel are at least 19 dBm
weaker than the access point that you are next to
B. Survey by SSID to ensure that smooth roaming is taking place
C. Verify that the real-world network traffic (for example, physical data rate, packet loss, etc.) meets user requirements
D. When you have completed the post-installation surveys, compare them to the surveys that were performed before
the installation. They should look nearly identical
E. Verify that user applications are running smoothly over the wireless network
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 4
The wireless team must configure a new voice SSID for optimized roaming across multiple WLCs with Cisco 7925
phones. Which two WLC settings accomplish this goal? (Choose two.)
A. Configure AVC profiles on the SSID
B. Configure mobility groups between WLCs
C. Use AVC to tag traffic voice traffic as best effort
D. Use Cisco Centralized Key Management for authentication
E. Configure AP groups between WLCs
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 5
What is the result if a client radio is incapable of supporting all the 5 GHz channels you have deployed in the controller
or APs?
A. You may only be able to deploy 20 MHz-wide channels.
B. This may result in the client having to roam more frequently to find a channel it supports.
C. This may result in coverage holes in the network.
D. You may only be able to deploy 40 MHz-wide channels.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
If you are calibrating for 2.4 GHz and the site will not be using 802.11 and 802.11b data rates, what should be done to
ensure an accurate calibration?
A. Make sure that the access points have the unused rates disabled.
B. Make sure that you are using an 802.11b client when calibrating.
C. Make certain that there are no legacy clients when performing the calibration because they will disrupt the process.
D. Make sure to use a client that supports both 802.11b/g and 802.11a.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 7
When designing and deploying an outdoor mesh network, what is the appropriate RF cell overlap?
A. 10 percent
B. 15 percent
C. 20 percent
D. 25 percent
E. Application dependent
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 8
When designing a WLAN, AP placement is important. Which option describes how to rank the density of APs needed to
support location services versus data and voice services?
A. Data services have the lowest density of APs compared to location services, which has the highest density.
B. Data services have a lower density of APs compared to location services, but more than voice.
C. Voice services have the highest density of APs over location and data services.
D. Voice and data services require a higher density of APs than location services.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
What is the Cisco-recommended cell overlap percentage for a typical RToWLAN network design?
A. 5 to 10
B. at least 20
C. a maximum of 20
D. at least 50
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
A downstream packet that contains a DSCP value arrives at the WLC Ethernet interface from the wired source network.
The WLC is configured for QoS WLAN 802.1p mapping. How does the WLC treat the CAPWAP QoS marking when
leaving the controller interface for the respective AP and final wireless client destination?
A. No outer CAPWAP or inner QoS tagging is applied.
B. The outer CAPWAP CoS is marked and capped and the inner DSCP maintains the original marking.
C. No outer CAPWAP QoS tag is applied, but the original DSCP is maintained inside CAPWAP.
D. The outer CAPWAP DHCP is marked and capped without any inner DSCP value.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
A corporation has a Cisco Unified Wireless Network that has been deployed for voice coverage. The wireless data rates
have been tuned to mandatory rates of 18 Mbps and 36 Mbps. Some wireless clients have been experiencing drops
streaming multicast video while moving throughout the building. What is the cause of the drop in video?
A. Clients are maintaining a 12Mbps rate and cannot receive the stream at 18Mbps.
B. Clients are not roaming due to coverage. This is causing the multicast data to drop due to the client re-associating
often.
C. Clients are roaming at lower data rates and are not maintaining 36Mbps connectivity.
D. Clients are connected at 18Mbps; however, other clients are connecting at 12Mbps and are causing the multicast
video to degrade.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
An engineer is implementing Q0S for a new wireless voice network. Which two considerations should be identified first?
(Choose two.)
A. QoS marking
B. policing
C. QoS requirements
D. data traffic usage
E. traffic classification
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 13
What two factors could cause a post-deployment audit to show a high retransmission rate for the WLAN? (Choose two.)
A. CRC errors
B. Rate shifting
C. CCX compatible clients
D. High SNR values
E. High RSSI values
Correct Answer: AB

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Table of Contents:

Latest Microsoft System Center 70-703 pdf

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Exam 70-703: Administering Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager and Cloud Services Integration: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-703.aspx

Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

  • Configure and Maintain a Configuration Manager Management Infrastructure (35-40%)
  • Manage Inventory by Using Configuration Manager (10-15%)
  • Manage Applications by Using Configuration Manager (15-20%)
  • Deploy and Maintain Operating Systems by using Configuration Manager (20-25%)
  • Extend the Management Scope of Configuration Manager (10-15%)

Who should take this exam?

Candidates for this exam are Enterprise Desktop Administrators who deploy, manage and maintain PCs, devices, and applications across medium, large, and enterprise organizations.

Candidates for this exam should have at least one or two years of experience managing and deploying PCs, devices, and applications by using System Center Configuration Manager and Microsoft Intune. Candidates should have a strong understanding of networking, Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS), Windows operating systems, and mobile device platforms. Candidates should also understand public key infrastructure (PKI) security, Windows PowerShell, and Windows Server roles and services.

Microsoft System Center 70-703 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
You need to collect detailed usage data from devices. The usage data must be retained for three years.
What should you deploy?
A. A Microsoft Operations Management Suite (OMS) connector
B. Software update point switching
C. Server groups
D. A Data Warehouse service point.
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/core/servers/manage/data-warehouse

 

QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You plan to deploy System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch) by using an initial pilot deployment.
The pilot deployment will contain five computers that run Windows 10.
You need to deploy the Configuration Manager client to the five computers only.
Solution: You create a Group Policy object (GPO) that contains a WMI filter for the five computers. To the GPO, you add
a startup script that runs ccmsetup.exe.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Ccmsetup.exe is used to deploy the Configuration Manager client but WMI filtering is based on device types. We should
use security filtering instead.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/core/clients/deploy/deploy-clients-to-windows-computers
https://blogs.technet.microsoft.com/grouppolicy/2009/07/30/security-filtering-wmi-filtering-and-item-level-targeting-in-group-policy-preferences/

 

QUESTION 3
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch). All client computers run Windows 7
and have the most recent updates installed. Configuration Manager and Microsoft Operations Manager Suite (OMS)
are
integrated.
You plan to use Upgrade Readiness to identify which computers support Windows 10.
You need to ensure that the computers report data to OMS.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. From Client Settings, configure a commercial ID key.
B. Configure Asset Intelligence.
C. From Client Settings, configure Windows telemetry.
D. Configure a software inventory.
E. Configure a hardware inventory.
Correct Answer: AC
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/core/clients/manage/upgrade/upgrade-analytics
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/core/clients/manage/monitor-windows-analytics

 

QUESTION 4
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
Your company has a main office and a branch office. The branch office has five users. Some users use laptops and
some use desktop computers.
All the servers for the company are located in the main office. The branch office connects to the main office by using a
VPN over a DSL connection to the main office. You need to minimize the bandwidth used to deploy updates to branch
office clients over the VPN connection. The solution must minimize costs.
A. a pull-distribution point
B. a cloud management gateway
C. BranchCache
D. a cloud-based distribution point
E. a software update point
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/core/plan-design/hierarchy/design-a-hierarchy-of-sites

 

QUESTION 5
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
You configure the environment for co-management.
You need to install the Configuration Manager client on all computers that are enrolled in Microsoft Intune.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Distribute the Configuration Manager client installation files to the cloud-based distribution point.
B. From Intune, deploy an app that contains Cccmsetup.msi.
C. From Configuration Manager, deploy a cloud-based distribution point.
D. From Configuration Manager, enable site-wide client push installation.
E. From Intune, deploy an app that contains Client.msi.
Correct Answer: ABC

 

QUESTION 6
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
You have offices in Montreal and Seattle. Each office is configured as an Active Directory site. Objects in each office are
part of a device collection.
You need to deploy software to clients in the Montreal office from servers in the Montreal office only.
What should you do?
A. Configure a boundary group for the client assignment.
B. Create a boundary for the Montreal office that uses Active Directory sites.
C. Add a management point in the Montreal office.
D. Create a user collection that contains the users in the Montreal office.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.systemcenterdudes.com/configure-sccm-2012-boundaries/

 

QUESTION 7
You have offices in the United Kingdom and Sweden.
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager that you use to manage the client computers in the
offices.
All the managed computers run Windows 10. The computers in the United Kingdom office use the English (United
Kingdom) en-GB language pack. The computers in the Sweden office use the Swedish (Sweden) sv-SE language
pack.
You need to create a servicing plan for Windows 10 in Configuration Manager to update the computers to the latest
version of Windows 10.
The solution must meet the following requirements:
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QUESTION 8
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch) that contains a collection named
Restricted. Restricted contains only client computers that run Windows 10.
You need to ensure that only trusted executable files can run on the computers in the Restricted collection.
What should you do?
A. Deploy custom Client Device Settings.
B. Create a Windows Defender Application Control (WDAC) policy.
C. Modify the Default Client Settings.
D. Create a device compliancy policy.
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/protect/deploy-use/use-device-guard-with-configuration-manager

 

QUESTION 9
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
Your company has offices in Paris and Boston.
All client computers run Windows 7.
You plan to migrate all the computers to Windows 10 by using task sequences in Configuration Manager. All the hard
drives will be reformatted during the migration.
You need to meet the following requirements:
For the computers in the Boston office, the user data and settings must be retained.
For the computers in the Paris office, users must be able to select which applications to install.
What should you use in each office? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
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QUESTION 10
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch) that you use to manage devices on
the corporate network.
You need to ensure that you can deploy software to Configuration Manager clients on the Internet.
What should you deploy?
A. a cloud-based distribution point in Microsoft Azure and the Microsoft Operations Management Suite (OMS)
connector
B. a management point and a service connection point in a perimeter network.
C. a cloud-based distribution point and a cloud management gateway in Microsoft Azure
D. a cloud-based distribution point in Microsoft Azure and a Microsoft Intune subscription
E. a distribution point and a management point on a perimeter network
F. a management point on a perimeter network and a cloud management gateway in Microsoft Azure
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/core/clients/manage/plan-internet-based-client-management

 

QUESTION 11
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch) that was implemented by a user
named Admin1. Configuration Manager includes the administrative users shown in the following table:lead4pass 70-703 exam question q11

You add a boot image named Boot1 to Configuration Manager. You set the security scope of Boot1 to Scope1. Which
user can create a task sequence that uses Boot1?
A. User2
B. User5
C. User7
D. User6
E. User8
Correct Answer: D
References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/gg682108.aspx

 

QUESTION 12
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is
repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is
exactly the same in each question in this series.
Start of repeated scenario.
You work for a company named ADatum Corporation.
The ADatum network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com.
You have a partner company named Contoso, Ltd. The Contoso network contains an Active Directory domain named
adatum.com.
All the client computers at both companies run Windows 10.
Each company has a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
ADatum has sales and IT departments. ADatum has a collection for each department.
Contoso has research, marketing, and human resources (HR) departments. Contoso has a collection for each
department.
ADatum purchases Contoso.
You configure on-premises mobile device management (MDM) in adatum.com. You enroll the client computers in the IT
department into on-premises MDM.
You configure hybrid MDM in contoso.com.
End of repeated scenario.
You need to ensure that when the users at Contoso enroll into MDM, they accept the usage policy of Contoso.
What should you do?
A. From Microsoft Intune in the Microsoft Azure portal, click Device compliance and configure the Compliance policy
settings.
B. From the Configuration Manager console, open the Assets and Compliance workspace and configure the terms and
conditions.
C. From Microsoft Intune in the Microsoft Azure portal, click Device enrollment and configure the terms and conditions.
D. From the Configuration manager console, open the Assets and Compliance workspace and configure a compliance
policy.
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/mdm/deploy-use/terms-and-conditions

 

QUESTION 13
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
You configure hybrid mobile device management (MDM).
You have a bring-your-own-device (BYOD) policy. Users self-enroll their mobile phones.
You plan to deploy a line-of-business app named App01 to Apple iOS devices. App01 can access private company
data.
You need to ensure that a PIN is entered when the users open App1.
What should you configure?
A. an application management policy
B. a compliance policy
C. a configuration baseline
D. Client Settings
Correct Answer: A
References: http://www.itprotoday.com/cloud-data-center/publish-corporate-applications-ios-using-configuration-
manager-and-intune

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Free test VMware VCP6-CMA 2V0-620 Exam questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
Which two Fibre Channel zoning options are supported with vSphere 6.x? (Choose two.)
A. Single-Initiator
B. Single-Initiator-Single-Target
C. Multiple-Initiators-Single-Target
D. Multiple-Initiators-Multiple-Targets
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
An administrator has configured an alarm to be notified when a virtual machine meets two conditions:
high virtual CPU
high active memory consumption
The alarm is malfunctioning and triggering when either condition is met instead of both.
What can be done to correct the issue?
A.
Edit the alarm and select Trigger if ALL of the following conditions are satisfied.
B.
Edit the alarm and select Trigger if ANY of the following conditions are satisfied.
C.
Create two separate alarms, one for CPU and one for memory.
D.
Delete the existing alarm and create a new event based alarm.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
An administrator is performing upgrades to ESXi 6.x from ESX 3.x and ESX 4.x hosts. What is true about this
procedure?
A. A direct, in-place upgrade can be performed only on ESX 4.1 and later hosts.
B. ESX 3.x hosts can be upgraded, but require an upgrade to 4.x before 5.x.
C. A direct, in-place upgrade can be performed only on ESX 4.5 and later hosts.
D. A direct, in-place upgrade can be performed only on ESX 3.5 and later hosts.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
You must upgrade version 3.x ESX and ESXi hosts to ESX or ESXi version 4.x before you can upgrade them to ESXi
5.1.x. See the vSphere 4.x upgrade documentation.
Alternatively, you might find it simpler and more cost effective to do a fresh installation of ESXi 5.1.x.

QUESTION 4
An administrator would like to have vCenter take action any time a virtual machine is using over 90% of its available
resources for five minutes or longer. Which three actions can be taken by vCenter Server in response to the trigger
without running a script? (Choose three.)
A. Power on a VM
B. Reboot Guest on VM
C. Increase Virtual Machine Memory
D. Migrate a VM
E. Increase Virtual Machine CPU Shares
Correct Answer: ABD
Explanation:
Power on a VM, reboot guest and Migrate a VM will be the actions taken by vCenter Server in response to a trigger
without needing a script.

QUESTION 5
After selecting an object in vRealize Operations, how can a user compare the badge values of related child objects?
A. Use the Scoreboard tab
B. Use the Relationship tab
C. Use the Members tab
D. Use the Overview tab
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
What are two reasons why a company would choose to use ESXi 6.x instead of using VMware Workstation 8? (Choose
two.)
A. The company needs to be able to assign existing physical disks to virtual machines.
B. The company needs remote management of virtual machines
C. The company needs support for virtual machines with up to sixteen vCPUs
D. The company wants the lowest overhead possible for the virtual infrastructure.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 7
Which two settings are required by the deployment wizard when installing the VMware vCenter Server Virtual Appliance
(vCSA)? (Choose two.)
A. Number of CPUs
B. Datastore to install on
C. Linked-mode
D. Name of the vCenter server
Correct Answer: BD
Reference: http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-51/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.install.doc%2FGUID-25FCB
A87-5D2F-4CB6-85D7-88899B4AC174.html

QUESTION 8
What virtual machine action listed below can be performed on a template?
A. Power on
B. Clone
C. Edit Settings
D. Migrate
Correct Answer: B
Reference: http://robertparten.com/vmware-difference-between-clone-and-template/

QUESTION 9
After installation of a host in your test environment, you need to move it to production. The only major change that
needs to be made is that the hostname of the server needs to change. What are two ways that an administrator can
change the host name without editing configuration files on the host directly? (Choose two.)
A. Login to the Direct Console User Interface and change it from here.
B. Edit the Default TCP/IP Configuration from the vSphere Web Client.
C. Use the Ruby vSphere Client to send a script to the ESXi host that updates the hostname.
D. Update the information in DNS and the ESXi host will automatically update with these changes.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 10
You have just installed an ESXi 6.x Host. As part of your company security regulations, a security banner must be
presented on the console of the host. How can this action be accomplished?
A. Configure the Advanced Settings > Annotations screen of the ESXi host.
B. This is configured from the Direct Console User Interface configuration menu.
C. It is not possible to configure a security banner for the ESXi host.
D. From vCenter Server, this setting is configured globally in the vCenter Server configuration.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
An administrator is attempting to enable Storage I/O Control on a datastore, but it is failing. What is the likely reason for
this failure?
A. The host is connected to a datastore is running on ESX 4.0.
B. The host is connected to a Fibre Channel storage array.
C. The datastore has multiple extents.
D. The datastore is managed by a single vCenter Server.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which three traffic types are available services options when configuring a vmkernel port? (Choose three.)
A. Provisioning Traffic
B. Virtual Volumes Traffic
C. vSphere Replication NFC Traffic
D. Virtual SAN Traffic
E. FCoE Traffic
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 13
When is it possible to place a VMFS5 datastore in maintenance mode?
A. When it is a member of a Storage DRS cluster
B. When it is a member of Virtual SAN cluster
C. When it is a member of a multi-extent datastore
D. When it is a member of a Virtual Volume
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
An administrator is setting up vSphere Auto Deploy to deploy 25 ESXi 6.x hosts using the vCenter Server Virtual
Appliance (vCSA). What would be considered best practices for Auto Deploy? (Choose three.)
A. Enable vSphere HA on the cluster.
B. Protect the vCenter server with Fault Tolerance.
C. Install the Auto Deploy service on the VCSA.
D. Include the vmware-fdm VIB in the image profile.
E. Use PowerCLI to write a rule that assigns a custom image profile to the target hosts.
Correct Answer: ADE
Reference: http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-50/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.install.doc_50%2FGUID-980
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QUESTION 1
Which two encryption keys does the host use when encrypting virtual machine files? (Choose two.)
A. Public Key Infrastructure Encryption Key (PKI)
B. Master Encryption Key (MEK)
C. Data Encryption Key (DEK)
D. Key Encryption Key (KEK)
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
Which two statements are true about Permanent Device Loss (PDL)? (Choose two.)
A. All paths are shown as Dead for the affected device.
B. The datastore cluster is incorrectly configured.
C. The datastore on the affected device shown a yellow warning sign.
D. The datastore on the affected device shows a red error sign.
E. The operational state of the affected device changes to Lost Communication.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 3
An administrator wants to enable VMware Fault Tolerance on a virtual machine.
Which two vSphere features are supported with Fault Tolerance? (Choose two.)
A. VM Component Protection
B. vSphere HA
C. Storage DRS
D. Snapshots
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
Which three are supported upgrade processes for ESXi host? (Choose three.)
A. using vSphere Auto Deploy
B. using a TFTP server
C. using Update Manager
D. using an ESXCLI command
E. installing from CIFS share
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 5
Which two storage technologies are supported for MSCS? (Choose two.)
A. VAAI
B. NFS
C. iSCSI
D. FC
Correct Answer: CD
https://kb.vmware.com/s/article/2147661?other.KM_Utility.getArticleLanguage=1andr=1andothe
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QUESTION 6
An administrator wants to upgrade ESXi 5.5 hosts to ESXi 6.5 using Update Manager. When performing a scan for
baseline compliance, the host\\’s status is marked Compliant.
Which has happened?
A. Host must be version 6.0 in order to upgrade to 6.5.
B. Host has some third-party software installed.
C. Host has no upgrade baseline attached.
D. Host hardware is not supported for upgrade.
Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 7
An administrator discovers that virtual machine migrations with encrypted vMotion have failed. Which action can resolve
this issue?
A. Use vSphere Update Manager to upgrade all hosts to ESXi 6.5
B. Install a USB decryption dongle on all hosts in the cluster
C. Disable Strict Lockdown mode
D. Use esxcli to enable encrypted vMotion
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
An administrator has a large boot from SAN cluster and wants to ensure consistent configuration by using host profiles.
What special considerations are required for boot from SAN hosts?
A. Host profiles are incompatible with boot from SAN hosts.
B. Change the “Device is shared clusterwide” setting to “false” in the host profile.
C. Verify that the boot LUN is correctly identified as the boot device in the host profile.
D. The boot from SAN device must report as a local device.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
ESXi hosts with 10Gbps network cards are attached to a distributed switch. The administrator has upgraded to NIOC3
and wants to allow vMotion traffic to use as much bandwidth as possible but must ensure that other services always
have sufficient bandwidth.
How can this be done?
A. Configure shares on the distributed switch for the vMotion traffic type.
B. Configure limits on the distributed switch on the on vMotion traffic type.
C. Associate vMotion traffic with a network resource pool and use CoS tagging.
D. Set shares on user-defined network resource pool and associate it with vMotion traffic.
Correct Answer: A
From the Shares drop-down men, edit the share of the traffic in the overall flow through a physical adapter. Network I/O
Control applies the configured shares when a physical adapter is saturated.

QUESTION 10
Which statement applies to the vSphere Replication appliance?
A. Only one vSphere Replication appliance can be deployed per vCenter Server instance.
B. VMware Tools in the vSphere Replication appliance can be upgraded.
C. A single vSphere Replication appliance can manage a maximum of 4000 replications.
D. vSphere Replication is available only with the vSphere Essentials Plus license.
Correct Answer: A
https://docs.vmware.com/en/vSphere-Replication/6.5/com.vmware.vsphere.replication- admin.doc/GUID-
E114BAB8-F423-45D4-B029-91A5D551AC47.html

QUESTION 11
Which network is used by vSphere HA when VMware vSAN is enabled?
A. VSAN network
B. vMotion network
C. Management network
D. vSphere Replication network
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which two components are necessary for the first boot of a host using Auto Deploy? (Choose two.)
A. Host Profiles
B. Bulk licensing
C. vSphere Authentication Proxy
D. TFTP
E. DHCP
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 13
When performing a vCenter Server 5.5 for Windows with Microsoft SQL Server Express database migration to vCenter
Server Appliance 6.5, which will be the target database?
A. Microsoft SQL Server Express 2012R2
B. Microsoft SQL Server Standard 2012R2
C. PostgreSQL
D. Oracle DB 11g
Correct Answer: C
To perform vcenter server 5.5 for Windows with Microsoft SQL server express database migration to vcenter server
appliance 6.5, you need PostgreSQL database installation on Windows.

QUESTION 14
Which is the correct sequence to upgrade a vSphere infrastructure?
A. vCenter Server > ESXi host > VMware Tools > VM compatibility
B. vCenter Server > ESXi host > VM compatibility > VMware Tools
C. ESXi host > vCenter Server > VMware Tools > VM compatibility
D. ESXi host > vCenter Server > VM compatibility > VMware Tools
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
An administrator is performing a silent automatic update of VMware Tools on a Windows virtual machine. What syntax
needs to be entered into the Advanced Options box?
A. /s /v “/qn” /l “c:\Windows\filename.log”
B. –prefix=/usr/local,/usr/lib,/usr/doc –silent
C. –prefix=c:\Windows,c:\VMtools –silent
D. /fs /v “/qn+” /l “c:\Windows\filename.log”
Correct Answer: A
One way to determine the component values to use is to run the interactive VMware Tools installer with full logging
turned on, select the components that you want installed, and then search the log files for the ADDLOCAL and
REMOVE properties. The log files show the names used by the program.
Reference: http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-50/advanced/print.jsp?topic=/com.vmware.vsphere.additional_resources.d
oc_50/GUID- 3D2186A2-6EC7-470E-8D1E-CA226EDBBBB0.html

QUESTION 2
Which group in the vsphere.local domain will have administrator privileges for the VMware Certificate Authority
(VMCA)?
A. SolutionUsers
B. CAAdmins
C. DCAAdmins
D. SystemConfiguration.Administrators
Correct Answer: B
Members of the CAAdmins group have administrator privileges for VMCA. Adding members to these groups is not
usually recommended.
Reference: https://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-60/index.jsp?topic=
%2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.security.doc%2FGUID-87DA2F34- DCC9-4DAB-8900-1BA35837D07E.html

QUESTION 3
An administrator wants to ensure that all datastores defined on an ALUA-based storage array have load balancing
enabled by default. The storage configuration is:
Storage Array Type = VMW_SATP_DEFAULT_AA
Path Selection Policy = VMW_PSP_FIXED
Which configuration would support the stated requirements?
A.
Change the Storage Array Type Policy to = VMW_SATP_ALUA and the Path Selection Policy = VMW_PSP_RR.
B.
Change the Path Selection Policy = VMW_PSP_RR and leave the Storage Array Type Policy as is.
C.
Change the Storage Array Type Policy to = VMW_SATP_ALUA and leave the Path Selection Policy as is.
D.
Change the Path Selection Policy = NMP and leave the Storage Array Type Policy as is.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
How does vSphere High Availability calculate the memory slot size of a virtual machine?
A. Virtual machine memory reservation + overhead of largest virtual machine
B. Virtual machine memory reservation ?overhead of largest virtual machine
C. Virtual machine memory reservation + overhead of smallest virtual machine
D. Virtual machine memory reservation ?overhead of smallest virtual machine
Correct Answer: A
Reference: http://www.yellow-bricks.com/2009/08/12/ha-and-slot-sizes/

QUESTION 5
What is the name of the command line utility that checks for VMFS5 metadata corruption?
A. vmkfstools ?heck
B. voma
C. vmfsanalyzer
D. esxcli vmfs check
Correct Answer: B
It is possible to check VMFS for metadata inconsistency with a tool called VOMA (Vmware Ondisk Metadata Analyser).
With VOMA you can check VMFS3 and VMFS5 datastores.
Please note, that the tool can only identify problems, as it runs in a read-only mode. So it does not help you to fix
detected errors.
Reference: http://www.running-system.com/how-to-check-vmfs-for-metadata-corruption- esxi-5-1-and-later/

QUESTION 6
An administrator has configured three vCenter Servers and vRealize Orchestrator within a Platform Services Controller
domain, and needs to grant a user privileges that span all environments. Which statement best describes how the
administrator would accomplish this?
A. Assign a Global Permission to the user.
B. Assign a vCenter Permission to the user.
C. Assign vsphere.local membership to the user.
D. Assign an ESXi Permission to the user.
Correct Answer: A
Global permissions are applied to a global root object that spans solutions, for example, both vCenter Server and
vCenter Orchestrator. Use global permissions to give a user or group privileges for all objects in all object hierarchies.
Reference: http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-60/index.jsp?topic= %2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.security.doc%2FGUID-
C7702E31-1623-4189-89CB- E1136AA27972.html

QUESTION 7
What are three reasons why a virtual machine might fail to power on? (Choose three.)
A. The virtual machine is running on an ESXi host which has an expired license.
B. The virtual machine is running on a datastore which has insufficient disk space for the .vswp file.
C. The virtual machine is in a cluster with vSphere HA Admission control enabled.
D. The virtual machine has a disconnected network adapter.
E. The virtual machine does not have a Virtual Hard Disk assigned.
Correct Answer: ABC
Reference:
https://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-50/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.troubleshooting.doc_50%2FGUID-
D4770546-9F9A-4F1E-AC1C-CF313E6130F4.html

QUESTION 8
An administrator wants to upgrade to vCenter Server 6.x.
The vCenter Server:
Is hosted on a virtual machine server running Microsoft Windows Server 2008 R2, with 8 vCPUs and 16GB RAM.
Will have an embedded Platform Services Controller. Hosts a Large Environment with 1,000 ESXi hosts and 10,000
Virtual Machines.
Why does the vCenter Server not meet the minimum requirements?
A. Windows Server 2008 R2 is not a supported Operating System for vCenter Server.
B. The virtual machine has insufficient resources for the environment size.
C. The environment is too large to be managed by a single vCenter Server.
D. The Platform Services Controller must be changed to an External deployment.
Correct Answer: B
The environment is very big with 1000 ESXi host and 10,000 virtual machines. Therefore, it is not enough and the
vCenter server cannot meet these requirements.

QUESTION 9
An administrator tries to run esxtop to troubleshoot CPU performance issues, but no output is displayed. How can the
issue be resolved?
A. esxtop is deprecated in vSphere 6.x, resxtop must be used to produce the desired output.
B. In esxtop, press f and place an asterisk next to each field that should be displayed.
C. sudo should be run in front of esxtop to give the administrator the proper permissions.
D. The esxtop command must be run from the /proc directory to produce output.
Correct Answer: B
When you press f and place an asterisk next to each field that you want displayed, esxtop will definitely display
performance issues, if any.

QUESTION 10
An administrator uses the df
Correct Answer: A
IF the NFS datastore is showing 0 bytes of capacity when you use df

QUESTION 11
Which minor badge items make up the Efficiency badge score for an ESXi host in vCenter Operations Manager?
A. Workload, Anomalies, Faults
B. Workload, Stress, Density
C. Time Remaining, Capacity Remaining
D. Reclaimable Waste, Density
Correct Answer: D
The third major badge that vC Ops reports is Efficiency. We all moved to virtualization in hopes of achieving greater
efficiencies but there are varying degrees of efficiency so vC Ops is here to help ensure that you maximize the efficiency
of your virtual infrastructure. The efficiency badge score is a weighted combination of Reclaimable Waste and Density.
Reference: http://blogs.vmware.com/management/2014/04/david-davis-on-vcenter- operations-post-8-understanding-
vcenter-operations-badges.html

QUESTION 12
An administrator has noticed that virtual machine VM2 in the vApp shown in the Exhibit is demonstrating poor
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Which three changes, if performed separately, would improve the performance of VM2? (Choose three.)
A. Remove the CPU limit on the vApp.
B. Remove the CPU limit on the resource pool.
C. Increase the CPU reservation on virtual machine VM1.
D. Power off virtual machine VM1.
E. Increase the CPU reservation on virtual machine VM2.
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 13
An administrator needs to create an Integrated Windows Authentication (IWA) Identity Source on a newly deployed
vCenter Server Appliance (VCSA). Which two actions will accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. Use a Service Principal Name (SPN) to configure the Identity Source.
B. Use a Domain administrator to configure the Identity Source.
C. Join the VCSA to Active Directory and configure the Identity Source with a Machine Account.
D. Create a computer account in Active Directory for the VCSA and configure the Identity Source.
Correct Answer: AC
Using a machine account when configuring an Active Directory identity source for vCenter Server requires that the
Windows system be joined to the domain. If the system is not joined to the domain, SSO cannot leverage the machine
account
to create the identity source and perform its function as the secure token service user.
To resolve this issue in VCVA 5.5, use only the Use SPN option.
Reference: http://kb.vmware.com/selfservice/microsites/search.do? language=en_USandcmd=displayKCandexternalId=2058919

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Latest effective Cisco 210-060 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Which address is required to create a video endpoint in Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. MAC
B. IP
C. E.164
D. SIP URI
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
Which three network elements are crucial when deploying VoIP devices? (Choose three.)
A. Round-trip time
B. QoS markings
C. Bandwidth
D. Ethernet
E. Fibre
F. Token ring
Correct Answer: ABC


QUESTION 3
Which protocol allows Cisco Unified Communications Manager to take control of a specific port on a gateway?
A. SIP
B. H.323
C. Q.931
D. MGCP
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 4
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager device report provides key information to determine if an additional gateway is needed?
A. Gateway utilization
B. Gateway summary
C. Gateway detail
D. Gateway and line group utilization
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
Which two steps are not necessary when enabling an end user for Cisco Unified Personal Communicator?(Choose
two.)
A. Assign license capabilities
B. Subscribe phone service
C. Create a CSF device
D. Configure the owner user ID
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 6
What is the interface type that you should use to connect a PSTN analog line to the VoIP network?
A. FXS
B. FXO
C. E and M
D. Serial
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 7
A network engineer wants to delete unassigned phone extensions from the Cisco Unified Communications Manager
system. Where is this task accomplished?
A. route plan report
B. directory numbers
C. route plan details
D. enterprise parameters
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
An engineer is adding four cordless analog phones to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which solution best
meets this requirement?
A. Cisco VG202 Analog Voice Gateway
B. Cisco VG204 Analog Voice Gateway
C. Cisco VG224 Analog Voice Gateway
D. Cisco VG350 Analog Voice Gateway
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
What is the admin profile used for supervisor to modify or configure the recorded messages of customer employees?
A. annunciator admin
B. recordings admin
C. remote admin
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 10
On the PSTN gateway, a network engineer runs sh isdn status and finds the Layer 2 state of each interface to be
“TEI_ASSIGNED”. What is the status of PSTN connectivity from this gateway?
A. The T1 interfaces are established and operational.
B. This information does not indicate the status of PSTN connectivity from the gateway.
C. The T1 interfaces are down.
D. The T1 interfaces are being tested by the carrier.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 11
A new user has successfully registered Cisco Jabber. Which option verifies that the Jabber client is connected to all appropriate back-end systems?
A. Show Connection Status
B. Report A Problem
C. Advanced Settings
D. About Jabber
E. Reset Jabber
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 12
An IT administrator must allow a customer service department supervisor to change or modify a recorded message on
their phone system. Which role is needed to accomplish this?
A. Greeting Administrator
B. Recordings Administrator
C. Remote Administrator
D. Annunciator Administrator
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 13
Users report that no phone numbers are listed in the corporate directory, but the employee names are listed. Which
option must be verified in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration to display the directory numbers?
A. The primary extension is configured.
B. The user\\’s phones are listed as a controlled device.
C. Users are associated with their directory number.
D. The telephone number field has been filled in appropriately.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 14
An administrator is setting up a remote site in Cisco Unified Communications Manager that has a T1 WAN connection to
the main site. Which option is the best VoIP codec for this task?
A. G.711
B. G.729
C. G.712
D. G.723
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 15
Which four characteristics are associated with video? (Choose four)
A. greedy
B. TCP retransmits
C. UDP priority
D. delay sensitive
E. drop sensitive
F. benign
G. Bursty
Correct Answer: ACDG


QUESTION 16
A voice admin is trying to help a user to remotely change the call forward busy settings for a directory number. Which
option shows how to make this change remotely?
A. Log in to https:///ucmuser > general settings.
B. Log in to https:///ucmuser > phone > phone settings.
C. Log in to https:///ucmuser > phone > call forwarding > advanced calling rules.
D. Log in to https:///ucmuser > voicemail.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 17
An end user reports that conference calls are failing. Which fault domain should be investigated first?
A. IP phone
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Media Resources
C. voice gateways
D. network routers and switches
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 18
Which three characteristics are associated with voice? (Choose three.)
A. greedy
B. TCP retransmits
C. UDP priority
D. delay sensitive
E. drop insensitive
F. benign
G. benign or greedy
Correct Answer: CDF


QUESTION 19
Which signaling method uses robbed bit signaling?
A. CAS
B. FXS
C. FXO
D. CCS
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 20
Why is quality of service critical to voice network traffic?
A. Voice traffic is real-time network traffic.
B. Packets can be resent without affecting conversations.
C. Voice traffic is bursty in nature.
D. Voice traffic cannot be compressed.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 21
A networking administrator needs to add a new user in Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Where must the
administrator navigate to accomplish this task?
A. Device Association
B. User Management
C. Application
D. Application User
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 22
Which Cisco Unified CME GUI menu option is used to navigate to the screen used to add or change a user name or
password using the Cisco Unified CME GUI interface?
A. Administration > Update System Info
B. Configure > System Parameters
C. Configure > Phones
D. Configure > Extensions
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 23
An engineer is configuring the Cisco Unified Communications Manager disaster recovery system. Which three
statements about the disaster recovery system are true? (Choose three.)
A. It requires the use of schedules for backups.
B. Backup files are encrypted using the cluster security password.
C. If the backup device is listed in a backup schedule, it cannot be manually deleted.
D. If the backup does not complete within 40 hours, the backup times out.
E. Archiving backups to tape drives is supported.
F. SSL is used between the master and local agents.
Correct Answer: BCF


QUESTION 24
A user report hearing an Echo on Call what are two common causes of echo on a Voip Networking (choose two)
A. Network packet loss
B. Ata
C. Headset use
D. Speakrphone Use
E. RFI
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 25
Which two options are configured on the phone configuration page within Cisco Unified Communications Manager
Administrator? (Choose two.)
A. device pool
B. auto answer
C. partition
D. voice-mail profile
E. MAC address
Correct Answer: AE


QUESTION 26
Which path would you use to implement end users in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express using Cisco
Configuration Professional?
A. Configure > Unified Communications > Telephony Settings > User Settings
B. Configure > Unified Communications > Users, Phones and Extensions > Phones
C. Configure > Unified Communications > Users, Phones and Extensions > User Settings
D. Configure > Unified Communications > Users, Phones and Extensions > Extensions
E. Configure > Unified Communications > Users, Phones and Extensions > Phones and Users
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 27
Which options are two on-premise components of Cisco Unified Presence? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Communication Manager
B. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express
C. Cisco WebEx
D. Cisco Quality Management
E. Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise
F. Cisco Unity Connection
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 28
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager configuration causes an IP phone screen to display a “registration
rejected” message?
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager is unable to reach user IP phone.
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager database replication status is 2.
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager auto registration is disabled.
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager is unable to allocate DN.
E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager subscriber is offline.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 29
A company has a 5-digit dial plan. A junior engineer inquires about the directory number external masks. Why are
external masks used?
A. to block calling number identification
B. to enable called number identification
C. to convert the calling directory number to the PSTN routable calling directory number
D. to associate a directory number with a SIP endpoint
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 30
A Cisco administrator is asked to set up two new end users in Cisco Unified Communication Manager. Which two fields
are required? (Choose two.)
A. First Name
B. User ID
C. PIN
D. Telephone Number
E. Password
F. Last Name
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 31
A Cisco IP phone is connected to a Cisco switch and is trying to obtain its network configuration. What is the first
protocol that is used?
A. RTP
B. DHCP
C. CDP
D. SIP
Correct Answer: C
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cuipph/7905g_7912g/5_0/sip/english/administration/guide/5_0/L
owPovr.html#wp1066491


QUESTION 32
Which file extension is used with the Bulk Administration Tool to automatically populate and insert data into the
database when adding users in bulk?
A. CSV
B. RAR
C. NTP
D. TAR
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 33
An engineer must generate a report of Cisco Unified Communications Manager usage for capacity planning.
Where can this information be obtained within System Reports?
A. precedence call
B. voice usage
C. user usage
D. traffic
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 34
A user needs to access CAR logs to adjust settings. Which two options are required? (Choose two.)
A. The user account has the Standard CAR Admin Users role.
B. The user must log in at https://:8443/car/Logon.jsp.
C. The user must log in at https://:8443/cdr/Logon.jsp.
D. The user account has the CTI Enabled role.
E. The user account has the Standard CAR role.
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 35
User A notices echo on a call with user B. Both users are using Cisco VoIP phones. User B is using a headset, and user
A is using a handset. What is the most likely source of the echo?
A. user A handset
B. user B headset
C. disabled echo cancellation on user A phone profile
D. disabled echo cancellation on user B phone profile
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 36
A user directory number is configured to forward all calls to a cell phone, but calls are not successfully forwarding.
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager setting requires reconfiguration?
A. DN External Mask
B. DN Route Partition
C. DN Calling Search Space
D. CFA Calling Search Space
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 37
Which option allows an engineer to deploy new firmware to a single phone, while reducing possible impact?
A. Define a new firmware load on specific device. Save configuration and reset individual device.
B. Define load in device defaults. Reset Device Pool.
C. Upload firmware to TFTP server. Restart TFTP service.
D. Enable Peer Firmware Sharing.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 38
A user reports that several IP phones in a single department are displaying a continuous “registering” message. Which
fault domain should be investigated?
A. network router
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager subscriber node
C. network switch
D. IP phones
E. SIP gateway
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 39
When you configure a shared extension in Cisco Configuration Professional, which two characteristics should be the
same on both phones, so that the phones can successfully use a shared extension? (Choose two.)
A. Monitor mode
B. MAC address
C. Ephone-dn
D. Number
E. User ID
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 40
An IT administrator integrated the Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster with the corporate Active Directory
server using the Lightweight Directory Access Protocol. However, after accessing the Cisco Unity Connection
Administration section of the CUC cluster web interface, the IT administrator cannot access LDAP Directory from
Users> Import Users. Which two problems have occurred? (Choose two.)
A. The Cisco Unity Connections Primary server must be restarted.
B. LDAP synchronization must be enabled.
C. The LDAP configuration in Cisco Unified Communications Manager must have the Cisco Unity Connections LDAP
integration in Cisco Unified CM Administration option enabled.
D. The Cisco Unity Connections HA server must be restarted.
E. The LDAP Directory Configuration must be completed in the Cisco Unity Connection Administration interface.
F. The LDAP authentication settings are incorrectly specified in Cisco Unity Connections.
Correct Answer: DE

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