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VMware VCP6-DCV 2V0-621 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers Update (1-30)

QUESTION 1
Which two roles can be modified? (Choose two.)
A. Administrator
B. Network Administrator
C. Datastore Consumer
D. Read-Only
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 2
An administrator wishes to give a user the ability to manage snapshots for virtual machines.
Which privilege does the administrator need to assign to the user?
A. Datastore.Allocate Space
B. Virtual machine.Configuration.create snapshot
C. Virtual machine.Configuration.manage snapshot
D. Datastore.Browse Datastore
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
What is the highest object level from which a virtual machine can inherit privileges?
A. Host Folder
B. Data Center
C. Data Center Folder
D. VM Folder
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
In which two vsphere.local groups should an administrator avoid adding members? (Choose two.)
A. SolutionUsers
B. Administrators
C. DCAdmins
D. ExternalPDUsers
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 5
Which three services can be enabled/disabled in the Security Profile for an ESXi host? (Choose three.)
A. CIM Server
B. Single Sign-On
C. Direct Console UI
D. Syslog Server
E. vSphere Web Access
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 6
Strict Lockdown Mode has been enabled on an ESXi host.
Which action should an administrator perform to allow ESXi Shell or SSH access for users with administrator privileges?
A. Grant the users the administrator role and enable the service.
B. Add the users to Exception Users and enable the service.
C. No action can be taken, Strict Lockdown Mode prevents direct access.
D. Add the users to vsphere.local and enable the service.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which two groups of settings should be reviewed when attempting to increase the security of virtual machines (VMs)? (Choose two.) 2V0-621 dumps
A. Disable hardware devices
B. Disable unexposed features
C. Disable VMtools devices
D. Disable VM Template features
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 8
An administrator would like to use a passphrase for their ESXi 6.x hosts which has these characteristics:
• Minimum of 21 characters
• Minimum of 2 words
Which advanced options must be set to allow this passphrase configuration to be used?
A. retry=3 min=disabled, disabled, 7, 21, 7 passphrase=2
B. retry=3 min=disabled, disabled, 21, 7, 7 passphrase=2
C. retry=3 min=disabled, disabled, 2, 21, 7
D. retry=3 min=disabled, disabled, 21, 21, 2
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
An administrator has recently audited the environment and found numerous virtual machines with sensitive data written to the configuration files.
To prevent this in the future, which advanced parameter should be applied to the virtual machines?
A. isolation.tools.setinfo.disable = true
B. isolation.tools.setinfo.enable = true
C. isolation.tools.setinfo.disable = false
D. isolation.tools.setinfo.enable = false
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
When attempting to log in with the vSphere Web Client, users have reported the error:
Incorrect Username/Password
The administrator has configured the Platform Services Controller Identity Source as:
• Type. Active Directory as an LDAP Server
• Domain: vmware.com
• Alias: VMWARE
• Default Domain: Yes
Which two statements would explain why users cannot login to the vSphere Web Client? (Choose two.)
A. Users are typing the password incorrectly.
B. Users are in a forest that has 1-way trust.
C. Users are in a forest that has 2-way trust.
D. Users are logging into vCenter Server with incorrect permissions.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 11
An administrator needs to create an Integrated Windows Authentication (IWA) Identity Source on a newly deployed vCenter Server Appliance (VCSA).
Which two actions will accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. Use a Service Principal Name (SPN) to configure the Identity Source.
B. Use a Domain administrator to configure the Identity Source.
C. Join the VCSA to Active Directory and configure the Identity Source with a Machine Account.
D. Create a computer account in Active Directory for the VCSA and configure the Identity Source.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 12
An administrator is building a large virtual machine that will require as many vCPUs as the host can support. An ESXi 6.x host has these specifications:
• Six 32-core Intel Xeon Processors
• 256 GB of Memory
• 512 GB Local disk space using VMFS5
What is the maximum number of virtual CPUs that the virtual machine can be allocated?
A. 64
B. 128
C. 192
D. 256
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
An administrator is creating a new Content Library. It will subscribe to another remote Content Library without authentication enabled.
What information from the published library will they need in order to complete the subscription ?
A. Subscription URL
B. A security password from the publishing Content Library
C. Publisher’s Items.json file
D. Username from the publishing Content Library
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
A user notifies an administrator that Content Libraries are not visible.
What is a possible solution?
A. Assign the user the read-only role at the global permission level.
B. Assign the user the read-only role at the vCenter Server root level.
C. Assign the user the read-only role at the vCenter Server data center level.
D. Assign the user the read-only role at the vCenter Server cluster level.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
An administrator subscribes to the vCloud Air Disaster Recovery service.
Which replicated objects can be directly monitored and managed?
A. Virtual machine Snapshots
B. vApps
C. Virtual machines
D. ESXi Hosts
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which secondary Private VLAN (PVLAN) type can communicate and send packets to an Isolated PVLAN? 2V0-621 dumps
A. Community
B. Isolated
C. Promiscuous
D. Primary
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
What are two limitations of Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP) on a vSphere Distributed Switch? (Choose two.)
A. IP Hash load balancing is not a supported Teaming Policy.
B. Software iSCSI multipathing is not compatible.
C. Link Status Network failover detection must be disabled.
D. It does not support configuration through Host Profiles.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 18
An administrator runs the command esxcli storage core device list and sees the following output:
mpx.vmhba1:C0:T0:L0 Display Name: RAID 5 (mpx.vmhba1:C0:T0:L0) Has Settable Display Name: false SizE. 40960 Device Type: Direct-Access Multipath Plugin: NMP Devfs Path:
/vmfs/devices/disks/mpx.vmhba1:C0:T0:L0 Status: off Is Local: true
What can be determined by this output?
A. The device is a being used for vFlash Read Cache.
B. The device is in a Permanent Device Loss (PDL) state.
C. The device is a local Solid State Device (SSD).
D. The device is in an All Paths Down (APD) state.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Which two considerations should an administrator keep in mind when booting from Software Fiber Channel over Ethernet (FCoE)? (Choose two.)
A. Software FCoE boot configuration can be changed from within ESXi.
B. Software FCoE boot firmware cannot export information in FBFT format.
C. Multipathing is not supported at pre-boot.
D. Boot LUN cannot be shared with other hosts even on shared storage.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 20
Which two statements are true regarding VMFS3 volumes in ESXi 6.x? (Choose two.)
A. Creation of VMFS3 volumes is unsupported.
B. Upgrading VMFS3 volumes to VMFS5 is supported.
C. Existing VMFS3 volumes are unsupported.
D. Upgrading VMFS3 volumes to VMFS5 is unsupported.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 21
Where is a Virtual SAN Fault Domain configured?
A. VMware Virtual SAN Cluster configuration
B. VMware High Availability Cluster configuration
C. Distributed Resource Scheduler configuration
D. Datacenter Advanced Settings configuration
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Which two tasks does the Pluggable Storage Architecture (PSA) perform? (Choose two.)
A. Handles I/O queueing to the logical devices.
B. Handles physical path discovery, but is not involved in the removal.
C. Handles physical path discovery and removal.
D. Handles I/O queueing to FC storage HBAs.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 23
What is the command to list multipathing modules on an ESXi 6.x host?
A. esxcli storage core list plugin –plugin-class=MP
B. esxcli storage core list plugin –class-plugin=MP
C. esxcli storage core plugin list –plugin-class=MP
D. esxcli storage core plugin list –class-plugin=MP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
Refer to the Exhibit.
2V0-621 dumps
What will be the result of selecting the highlighted device?
A. Datastore will grow up to 200.01GB using the remaining free space on the device.
B. Datastore will add 200.01GB by adding the device as a second extent.
C. The device size can be expanded to be larger than 200.01 GB in size.
D. The device is not suitable for this operation.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
Refer to the Exhibit.
2V0-621 dumps
An administrator wishes to provide Load Balanced I/O for the device shown in the Exhibit.
To meet this requirement, which setting should be changed?
A. Storage Array Type Policy = VMW_NMP_RR
B. Path Selection Policy = Round Robin (VMware)
C. Storage Array Type Policy = VMW_SATP_RR
D. Path Selection Policy = MRU (VMware)
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
Which file determines the location of the installation script during a scripted upgrade?
A. boot.cfg
B. ks.cfg
C. script.cfg
D. upgrade.cfg
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
What are three recommended prerequisites before upgrading virtual machine hardware? 2V0-621 dumps (Choose three.)
A. Create a backup or snapshot of the virtual machine.
B. Upgrade VMware Tools to the latest version.
C. Verify that the virtual machine is stored on VMFS3, VMFS5, or NFS datastores.
D. Detach all CD-ROM/ISO images from the virtual machines.
E. Set the Advanced Parameter virtualHW.version = 11
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 28
When upgrading vCenter Server, an administrator notices that the upgrade fails at the vCenter Single Sign-On installation.
What must be done to allow the upgrade to complete?
A. Verify that the VMware Directory service can stop by manually restarting it.
B. Verify that the vCenter Single Sign-On service can stop by manually restarting it.
C. Uninstall vCenter Single Sign-On service.
D. Uninstall the VMware Directory service.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
An administrator is upgrading vCenter Server and sees this error:
The DB User entered does not have the required permissions needed to install and configure vCenter Server with the selected DB.
Please correct the following error(s): %s
Which two statements explain this error? (Choose two.)
A. The database is set to an unsupported compatibility mode.
B. The permissions for the database are incorrect.
C. The permissions for vCenter Server are incorrect.
D. The database server service has stopped.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 30
Which log file would you examine to identify an issue which occurred during the pre-upgrade phase of a vCenter Server upgrade process?
A. vcdb_req.out
B. vcdb_export.out
C. vcdb_import.out
D. vcdb_inplace.out
Correct Answer: A

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Useful Cisco CCNA Security 210-260 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (1-30)

QUESTION 1
Which three ESP fields can be encrypted during transmission? (Choose three.)
A. Security Parameter Index
B. Sequence Number
C. MAC Address
D. Padding
E. Pad Length
F. Next Header
Correct Answer: DEF

QUESTION 2
What mechanism does asymmetric cryptography use to secure data?
A. a public/private key pair
B. shared secret keys
C. an RSA nonce
D. an MD5 hash
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Whit which type of Leyer 2 attack can you “do something” for one host:
A. MAC spoofing
B. CAM overflow….
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps
How many times was a read-only string used to attempt a write operation?
A. 9
B. 6
C. 4
D. 3
E. 2
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which feature allows a dynamic PAT pool to select the next address in the PAT pool instead of the next port of an existing address?
A. next IP
B. round robin
C. dynamic rotation
D. NAT address rotation
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which label is given to a person who uses existing computer scripts to hack into computers lacking the expertise to write their own?
A. white hat hacker
B. hacktivist
C. phreaker
D. script kiddy
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
When Cisco IOS zone-based policy firewall is configured, which three actions can be applied to a traffic class? 210-260 dumps (Choose three.)
A. pass
B. police
C. inspect
D. drop
E. queue
F. shape
Correct Answer: ACD
Explanation:
Zone-Based Policy Firewall Actions
ZFW provides three actions for traffic that traverses from one zone to another:
Drop — This is the default action for all traffic, as applied by the “class class-default” that terminates every inspect-type policy-map. Other class-maps within a policy-map can also be configured to drop unwanted traffic.
Traffic that is handled by the drop action is “silently” dropped (i.e., no notification of the drop is sent to the relevant end-host) by the ZFW, as opposed to an ACL’s behavior of sending an ICMP “host unreachable” message to the host that sent the denied traffic. Currently, there is not an option to change the “silent drop” behavior. The log option can be added with drop for syslog notification that traffic was dropped by the firewall.
Pass — This action allows the router to forward traffic from one zone to another. The pass action does not track the state of connections or sessions within the traffic. Pass only allows the traffic in one direction. A corresponding policy must be applied to allow return traffic to pass in the opposite direction. The pass action is useful for protocols such as IPSec ESP, IPSec AH, ISAKMP, and other inherently secure protocols with predictable behavior. However, most application traffic is better handled in the ZFW with the inspect action.
Inspect–The inspect action offers state-based traffic control. For example, if traffic from the private zone to the Internet zone in the earlier example network is inspected, the router maintains connection or session information for TCP and User Datagram Protocol (UDP) traffic. Therefore, the router permits return traffic sent from Internet-zone hosts in reply to private zone connection requests. Also, inspect can provide application inspection and control for certain service protocols that might carry vulnerable or sensitive application traffic.
Audit-trail can be applied with a parameter-map to record connection/session start, stop, duration, the data volume transferred, and source and destination addresses.

QUESTION 8
Which type of security control is defense in depth?
A. Threat mitigation
B. Risk analysis
C. Botnet mitigation
D. Overt and covert channels
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which statement about a PVLAN isolated port configured on a switch is true?
A. The isolated port can communicate only with the promiscuous port.
B. The isolated port can communicate with other isolated ports and the promiscuous port.
C. The isolated port can communicate only with community ports.
D. The isolated port can communicate only with other isolated ports.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which statement about Cisco ACS authentication and authorization is true?
A. ACS servers can be clustered to provide scalability.
B. ACS can query multiple Active Directory domains.
C. ACS uses TACACS to proxy other authentication servers.
D. ACS can use only one authorization profile to allow or deny requests.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps
If a supplicant supplies incorrect credentials for all authentication methods configured on the switch, how will the switch respond?
A. The supplicant will fail to advance beyond the webauth method.
B. The switch will cycle through the configured authentication methods indefinitely.
C. The authentication attempt will time out and the switch will place the port into the unauthorized state.
D. The authentication attempt will time out and the switch will place the port into VLAN 101.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
What configure mode you used for the command ip ospf authentication-key c1$c0?
A. global
B. privileged
C. in-line
D. Interface
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
ip ospf authentication-key is used under interface configuration mode, so it’s in interface level, under global configuration mode. If it asks about interface level then choose that.
interface Serial0
ip address 192.16.64.1 255.255.25

QUESTION 13
Which two features are commonly used CoPP and CPPr to protect the control plane? (Choose two.)
A. QoS
B. traffic classification
C. access lists
D. policy maps
E. class maps
F. Cisco Express Forwarding
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 14
What is one requirement for locking a wired or wireless device from ISE? 210-260 dumps
A. The ISE agent must be installed on the device.
B. The device must be connected to the network when the lock command is executed.
C. The user must approve the locking action.
D. The organization must implement an acceptable use policy allowing device locking.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which three statements are characteristics of DHCP Spoofing? (choose three)
A. Arp Poisoning
B. Modify Traffic in transit
C. Used to perform man-in-the-middle attack
D. Physically modify the network gateway
E. Protect the identity of the attacker by masking the DHCP address
F. can access most network devices
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 16
Which statement correctly describes the function of a private VLAN?
A. A private VLAN partitions the Layer 2 broadcast domain of a VLAN into subdomains
B. A private VLAN partitions the Layer 3 broadcast domain of a VLAN into subdomains
C. A private VLAN enables the creation of multiple VLANs using one broadcast domain
D. A private VLAN combines the Layer 2 broadcast domains of many VLANs into one major broadcast domain
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
which feature allow from dynamic NAT pool to choose next IP address and not a port on a used IP address?
A. next IP
B. round robin
C. Dynamic rotation
D. Dynamic PAT rotation
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Which type of encryption technology has the broadcast platform support?
A. Middleware
B. Hardware
C. Software
D. File-level
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
When an IPS detects an attack, which action can the IPS take to prevent the attack from spreading?
A. Deny the connection inline.
B. Perform a Layer 6 reset.
C. Deploy an antimalware system.
D. Enable bypass mode.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which four tasks are required when you configure Cisco IOS IPS using the Cisco Configuration Professional IPS wizard? (Choose four.)
A. Select the interface(s) to apply the IPS rule.
B. Select the traffic flow direction that should be applied by the IPS rule.
C. Add or remove IPS alerts actions based on the risk rating.
D. Specify the signature file and the Cisco public key.
E. Select the IPS bypass mode (fail-open or fail-close).
F. Specify the configuration location and select the category of signatures to be applied to the selected interface(s).
Correct Answer: ABDF

QUESTION 21
Which ports need to be active for AAA server and a Microsoft server to permit Active Directory authentication?
A. 445 and 389
B. 888 and 3389
C. 636 and 4445
D. 363 and 983
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
DRAG DROP
Drag the hash or algorithm from the left column to its appropriate category on the right.
Select and Place:
210-260 dumps
Correct Answer:
210-260 dumps
QUESTION 23
If a switch receives a superior BPDU and goes directly into a blocked state, what mechanism must be in use?
A. root guard
B. EtherChannel guard
C. loop guard
D. BPDU guard
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Which two are valid types of VLANs using PVLANs? 210-260 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Backup VLAN
B. Secondary VLAN
C. Promiscuous VLAN
D. Community VLAN
E. Isolated VLAN
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 25
Which two are the default settings for port security? (Choose two.)
A. Violation is Protect
B. Maximum number of MAC addresses is 1
C. Violation is Restrict
D. Violation is Shutdown
E. Maximum number of MAC addresses is 2
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps
Which area represents the data center?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps
A network security administrator checks the ASA firewall NAT policy table with the show nat command.
Which statement is false?
A. First policy in the Section 1 is dynamic nat entry defined in the object configuration.
B. There are only reverse translation matches for the REAL_SERVER object.
C. NAT policy in Section 2 is a static entry defined in the object configuration.
D. Translation in Section 3 is used when a connection does not match any entries in first two sections.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
Which two are characteristics of RADIUS? (Choose two.)
A. Uses TCP ports 1812/1813
B. Uses UDP port 49
C. Encrypts only the password between user and server
D. Uses TCP port 49
E. Uses UDP ports 1812/1813
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 29
Which two types of firewalls work at layer 4 and above? (Choose two.)
A. Application level firewall
B. Circuit-level gateway
C. Static packet filter
D. Network Address Translation
E. Stateful inspection
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 30
When setting up a site-to-site VPN with PSK authentication on a Cisco router, which two elements must be configured under crypto map? (Choose two.)
A. nat
B. peer
C. pfs
D. reverse-route
E. transform-set
Correct Answer: BE

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High Quality Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-165 Dumps Real Exam Questions And Answers (1-30)

QUESTION 1
Which two options are limitations of NetFlow Version 5? (Choose two.)
A. no support for IPv6, Layer 2, or MPLS fields
B. fixed field specifications
C. excessive network utilization
D. analyzes all packets on the interface
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
Which two actions are required before FIPS is configured in Cisco MDS? (Choose two.)
A. Passwords must be a minimum of 10 characters in length.
B. SNMP v2 or v3 must be enabled.
C. Remote authentication must occur utilizing RADIUS/TACACS+.
D. Disable VRRP.
E. Delete all SSH server RSA key pairs.
F. Delete all IKE policies utilizing MD5 or DES for encryption.
G. Enable the FC-FIPS feature.
H. Disable SSH.
Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 3
If you are using NAT in your data center, which load balancing would you be likely to use within your GLBP configuration?
A. none
B. round-robin
C. host dependent
D. weighted
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which parameter is configurable when setting up logging on the Connectivity Management Processor?
A. the number of CMP messages to save in a single log file
B. the number of times the log can roll over
C. the directory to save the log file to
D. the severity threshold of the messages to log
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which Cisco NX-OS feature allows transparent Layer 2 extension between sites?
A. FabricPath
B. ETV
C. OTV
D. vPC
E. LISP
F. TrustSec
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which three options of encryption are supported in PIM hello messages? (Choose three.)
A. cleartext
B. DES-SHA1
C. DES-CBC3-SHA
D. Cisco Type 7
E. RC4-SHA
F. 3DES
Correct Answer: ADF

QUESTION 7
300-165 dumps Which task must be done before a zone set takes effect?
A. Add a member to the zone.
B. Enter the exit config t command.
C. Enter the copy running-config startup-config command.
D. Enter the zoneset activate name vsan <vsan-#> command.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.
300-165 dumps
What is the maximum IPv6 unicast route memory allocated?
A. 4 MB
B. 8 MB
C. 1024 MB
D. 1 GB
E. 5 MB
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
300-165 dumps
Which two outcomes occur when the state is Other? (Choose two.)
A. The VSAN on each end of the connection does not match.
B. The interface is not an E Port.
C. The interface is not an F Port.
D. The interface is administratively shut down.
E. Cisco Fabric Services is not enabled.
F. NPIV should be disabled.
G. The interface is functioning, but may have errors.
H. Encryption is not enabled.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 10
Which command ensures that a learned MAC address is stored within NVRAM?
A. switchport port-security mac-address address [vlan vlan-ID]
B. switchport port-security
C. switchport port-security mac-address sticky
D. feature port-security
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
In Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches, which three statements about SPAN are true? (Choose three.)
A. SPAN source ports can be the in-band interface to the supervisor engine control plane of the switch.
B. SPAN monitor ports can be routed ports.
C. SPAN destination ports can be configured in only one SPAN session at a time.
D. The Cisco Nexus 7000 supports virtual SPAN feature.
E. SPAN destination port actively participates in spanning-tree instance.
F. SPAN destinations cannot be an RSPAN VLAN.
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 12
Which four statements about reserved VLANs in Cisco NX-OS are true? (Choose four.)
A. The range of reserved VLANs cannot be changed.
B. The number of reserved VLANs is 96.
C. A change to the range of reserved VLANs can be performed only in the VDC default.
D. A write-erase procedure restores the default reserved VLAN range.
E. The number of reserved VLANs is 128.
F. A reload is needed for changes to take place.
G. The configuration must be saved for changes to take place.
Correct Answer: CEFG

QUESTION 13
Which three options are capabilities of the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch? (Choose three.)
A. All interface and supervisor modules are accessible from the front.
B. All interface and supervisor modules are accessible from the rear.
C. single power supply only
D. multiple power supply option for redundancy
E. up to 180.7 Tbps forwarding capacity with Fabric-2 modules with 10-slot switches
F. up to 18.7 Tbps forwarding capacity with Fabric-2 modules with 18-slot switches
Correct Answer: ADF

QUESTION 14
Which command specifies a load-balancing method based on the MAC address of a host where the same forwarder is always used for a particular host while the number of GLBP group members remains unchanged?
A. load-balancing host-dependent
B. load-balancing mac-pinning
C. load-balancing round-robin
D. load-balancing weighted
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
In OTV, how are the VLANs split when a site has two edge devices?
A. They are configured manually by user.
B. They are split in half among each edge device.
C. They are split as odd and even VLAN IDs on each edge device.
D. It is not possible to have two edge devices in same site.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which protocol is responsible for the discovery of FCoE capabilities on a remote switch?
A. DCE
B. DCBx
C. CDP
D. LLDP
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
Data Center Bridging Capabilities Exchange Protocol (DCBX): a discovery and capability exchange protocol that is used for conveying capabilities and configuration of the above features between neighbors to ensure consistent configuration across the network. This protocol leverages functionality provided by IEEE 802.1AB (LLDP). It is actually included in the 802.1az standard.

QUESTION 17
Which command enables NPIV on Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches and Cisco MDS switches?
A. switch(config)# npiv enable
B. switch(config)# npivon
C. switch(config)# feature npiv
D. switch(config)# npiv proxy
E. switch(config)# np proxy-enable
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Which statement about core-edge SAN topology is true?
A. Converged FCoE links connect the core and edge MDS switches.
B. The SAN core connects to the network aggregation layer.
C. Separate links with the same I/O are used for SAN and LAN traffic.
D. Storage devices are accessed via FCoE over the LAN network.
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
The Aggregation layer of the data center provides connectivity for the Access layer switches in the server farm, an aggregates them into a smaller number of interfaces to be connected into the Core layer. 300-165 dumps In most data center environments, the Aggregation layer is the transition point between the purely Layer 3 routed Core layer, and the Layer 2-switched Access layer. 802.1Q trunks extend the server farm VLANs between Access and Aggregation layers. The Aggregation layer also provides a common connection point to insert services into the data flows between clients and servers, or between tiers of servers in a multi-tier application.

QUESTION 19
Which configuration is specific to Cisco TelePresence System seed devices?
A. radius server radius-server-name
B. aaa session-id common
C. radius-server vsa send authentication
D. aaa new-model
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which two statements about SAN zoning on Cisco Nexus switches are true? (Choose two.)
A. Unlike configured zones, default zone information is not distributed to the other switches in the fabric.
B. Traffic can either be permitted or denied among members of the default zone. This information is not distributed to all switches. It must be configured in each switch.
C. The settings for default zone configurations cannot be changed.
D. To activate a zone set, you must copy the running configuration to the startup configuration after the zone set is configured.
E. Soft zoning restrictions will not prevent a source device from accessing a device outside its zone, if the source knows the Fibre Channel ID of the destination.
F. Hard zoning is enforced by the hardware on each FLOGI sent by an N Port.
Correct Answer: BE

Explanation:
Each member of a fabric (in effect a device attached to an Nx port) can belong to any zone. If a member is not part of any active zone, it is considered to be part of the default zone. Therefore, if no zone set is active in the fabric, all devices are considered to be in the default zone. Even though a member can belong to multiple zones, a member that is part of the default zone cannot be part of any other zone. The switch determines whether a port is a member of the default zone when the attached port comes up. Unlike configured zones, default zone information is not distributed to the other switches in the fabric Traffic can either be permitted or denied among members of the default zone. This information is not distributed to all switches; it must be configured in each switch.

QUESTION 21
Which statement describes what happens if a new EPLD version is released with a new Cisco NX-OS version for a Cisco Nexus switch, but these EPLDs are not upgraded at the same time that NX-OS is upgraded?
A. Any new hardware or software feature that depends on the updated EPLD image is disabled until upgraded.
B. Modules that use an updated EPLD image remain offline until the EPLD is upgraded.
C. The EPLD image version mismatch is detected by the supervisor, which automatically initiates an upgrade.
D. The Cisco NX-OS upgrade fails as a result of the mismatch between EPLDs and NX-OS versions.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Which command is used to associate EID-to-RLOC for a LISP site?
A. #feature lisp
B. #ipv6 lisp itr
C. #ip lisp database-mapping
D. #ip lisp itr map-resolver
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
Which feature must be enabled for Cisco TrustSec FC Link Encryption to work on a Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switch?
A. crypto IKE
B. port security
C. LDAP
D. FC-SP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
Which three attributes encompass a local user account on a Cisco NX-OS device? (Choose three.)
A. expiration date
B. cisco-avpair
C. password
D. AAA server address
E. user roles
F. bind user DN
G. user privileges
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 25
Which command activates the port security database for VSAN 1 regardless of conflicts?
A. port-security commit vsan 1
B. no port-security auto-learn vsan 1
C. port-security activate vsan 1 force
D. port-security database vsan 1
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
Which three options are capabilities of the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Supervisor Module? (Choose three.)
A. hardware forwarding on the supervisor module
B. fully decoupled control plane and data plane with no forwarding on the supervisor module
C. Sup2 requires Cisco NX-OS 5.1 or later.
D. Sup2 requires Cisco NX-OS 6.1 or later.
E. Sup2E supports 8+1 VDC with the N7K-VDC1K9 license per chassis.
F. Sup2 supports 8+1 VDCs with the N7K-VDC1K9 license per chassis.
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit.
300-165 dumps
Which two commands are missing from this configuration that an admin needs to integrate a Cisco Nexus 5000 switch with vCenter to leverage VM-FEX? (Choose two.)
A. vmware dvs datacenter-name
B. vmware dvs
C. remote ip address port 80 vrf
D. connection-type vmware
E. installation-method auto
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 28
Which three parameters can be set when configuring a Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switch to use a TACACS+ server? 300-165 dumps (Choose three.)
A. group-size
B. deadtime
C. timeout
D. keep-alive
E. retransmit
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 29
Which item represents the process that allows FCoE multihop using T11 standard FC-BB- 5?
A. distributed FCF
B. FIP proxy
C. N Port proxy
D. FIP snooping
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
FIP snooping is used in multi-hop FCoE environments. FIP snooping is a frame inspection method that can be used by FIP snooping capable DCB devices to monitor FIP frames and apply policies based on the information in those frames.
This allows for:
Enhanced FCoE security (Prevents FCoE MAC spoofing.) Creates FC point-to-point links within the Ethernet LAN Allows auto-configuration of ACLs based on name server information read in the FIP frames.

QUESTION 30
Which two elements must be configured correctly for Cisco TrustSec Fibre Channel Link Encryption to work on a Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switch? (Choose two.)
A. AES-GMAC
B. key
C. salt
D. AAA
E. group
Correct Answer: BC

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New Cisco Others 642-385 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-20)

QUESTION 1
Which type of BGP session behaves like an EBGP session during session establishment but behaves like an IBGP session when propagating routing updates where the local preference, multi-exit discriminator, and next-hop attributes are not changed?
A. BGP sessions between a route reflector and its clients
B. BGP sessions between a route reflector and its non-client IBGP peers
C. BGP sessions between a route reflector and another route reflector
D. Intra-confederation IBGP sessions
E. Intra-confederation EBGP sessions
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 2
When a BGP route reflector receives an IBGP update from a non-client IBGP peer, the route reflector will then forward the IBGP updates to which other router(s)?
A. To the other clients only
B. To the EBGP peers only
C. To the EBGP peers and other clients only
D. To the EBGP peers and other clients and non-clients
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which two BGP mechanisms are used to prevent routing loops when using a design with redundant route reflectors? (Choose two.)
A. Cluster-list
B. AS-Path
C. Originator ID
D. Community
E. Origin
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 4
Which two statements correctly describe the BGP ttl-security feature? (Choose two.)
A. This feature protects the BGP processes from CPU utilization-based attacks from EBGP neighbors which can be multiple hops away
B. This feature prevents IBGP sessions with non-directly connected IBGP neighbors
C. This feature will cause the EBGP updates from the router to be sent using a TTL of 1
D. This feature needs to be configured on each participating BGP router
E. This feature is used together with the ebgp-multihop command
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 5
When implementing source-based remote-triggered black hole filtering, which two configurations are required on the edge routers that are not the signaling router? (Choose two.)
A. A static route to a prefix that is not used in the network with a next hop set to the Null0 interface
B. A static route pointing to the IP address of the attacker
C. uRPF on all external facing interfaces at the edge routers
D. Redistribution into BGP of the static route that points to the IP address of the attacker
E. A route policy to set the redistributed static routes with the no-export BGP community
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 6
You noticed a recent change to the BGP configuration on a PE router, the bgp scan time has been changed from the default value to 30s. Which three effects will this change have? 642-385 dumps (Choose three.)
A. The BGP table will be examined and verified more frequently
B. The BGP keepalive messages will be sent to the BGP peers at a faster rate
C. The BGP table will be modified more quickly in the event that a next-hop address becomes unreachable
D. The CPU load of the router will increase
E. The minimum time interval between sending EBGP and IBGP routing updates will decrease
F. The BGP convergence time will increase
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 7
In Cisco IOS-XR, the maximum-prefix command, to control the number of prefixes that can be installed from a BGP neighbor, is configured under which configuration mode?
A. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:P2(config-bgp)#
B. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:P2(config-bgp-af)#
C. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:P2(config-bgp-nbr)#
D. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:P2(config-bgp-nbr-af)#
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
In Cisco IOS-XR, the ttl-security command is configured under which configuration mode?
A. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:P2(config)#
B. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:P2(config-bgp)#
C. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:P2(config-bgp-nbr)#
D. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:P2(config-bgp-af)#
E. RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:P2(config-bgp-nbr-af)#
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
On Cisco IOS-XR, which BGP process can be distributed into multiple instances?
A. BGP process manager
B. BGP RIB process
C. BGP speaker process
D. BGP scanner process
E. BGP dampening process
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which three methods can be used to reduce the full-mesh IBGP requirement in a service provider core network? (Choose three.)
A. Implement route reflectors
B. Enable multi-protocol BGP sessions between all the PE routers
C. Implement confederations
D. Implement MPLS (LDP) in the core network on all the PE and P routers
E. Enable BGP synchronization
F. Disable the IBGP split-horizon rule
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 11
Which two statements correctly describe the RPF check when a multicast packet arrives at a router? (Choose two.)
A. The router looks up the source address in the unicast routing table to determine if the packet has arrived on the interface that is on the reverse path back to the source
B. The router looks up the destination address in the unicast routing table to determine if the packet has arrived on the interface that is on the reverse path back to the destination
C. If the packet has arrived on the interface leading back to the destination, the RPF check passes and the packet is forwarded. If the RPF check fails, the packet is dropped
D. If the packet has arrived on the interface leading back to the source, the RPF check passes and the packet is forwarded. If the RPF check fails, the packet is dropped
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 12
When enabling interdomain multicast routing, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Multiprotocol BGP is used instead of PIM SM to build the intradomain and interdomain multicast distribution trees
B. Use MSDP to enable the RPs from different domains to exchange information about active multicast sources
C. MSDP SA packets are sent between the multiprotocol BGP peers
D. Noncongruent unicast and multicast topologies can be supported using multiprotocol BGP
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 13
The 224.192.16.1 multicast IP address maps to which multicast MAC address?
A. 01-00-5E-C0-10-01
B. 01-00-5E-40-10-01
C. 01-00-5E-00-10-01
D. 01-00-5E-C0-16-01
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
The following Cisco IOS-XR configuration command will globally enable which multicast process(es) on the router?
RP/0/RP0/CPU0:router(config)# multicast-routing
A. IGMP only
B. PIM only
C. IGMP and MLD only
D. PIM and IGMP only
E. PIM and IGMP and MLD
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 15
Which three statements are correct regarding PIM-SM? (Choose three.)
A. There are three ways to configure the RP: Static RP, Auto-RP, or BSR
B. PIM-SM only uses the RP rooted shared tree and has no option to switch over to the shortest path tree
C. Different RPs can be configured for different multicast groups to increase RP scalability
D. Candidate RPs and RP mapping agents are configured to enable Auto-RP
E. PIM-SM uses the implicit join model
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 16
Which of the following is a feature added in IGMPv3?
A. Support for source filtering
B. Support for Host Membership Report and a Leave Group message
C. Uses a new variation of the Host Membership Query called the Group-Specific Host Membership Query
D. Uses an election process to determine the querying router on the LAN
E. Uses an election process to determine the designated router on the LAN
F. IPv6 support
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
642-385 dumps Which types of multicast distribution tree can PIM-SM use?
A. Only shared tree rooted at the source
B. Only shared tree rooted at the RP
C. Only shortest path tree rooted at the RP
D. Shared tree rooted at the source and shortest path tree switchover
E. Shared tree rooted at the RP and shortest path tree switchover
F. Shared tree rooted at the first-hop router and shortest path tree rooted at the RP
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 18
An engineer is allocating a determined amount of bandwidth to a customer Cisco MPLS TE tunnel to guarantee its availability on a 24/7 SLA type. Which option must be configured to make sure the customer is able to use the bandwidth agreed on the SLA?
A. RSVP that guarantees bandwidth availability end-to-end
B. Cisco MPLS TE tunnel to signal the bandwidth required
C. a QoS policy to reinforce the RSVP bandwidth reservation
D. overprovisioning to guarantee bandwidth
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which Cisco IOS XR high-availability feature is used to prevent routes from being used before LDP converges?
A. LDP session protection
B. LDP-IGP synchronization
C. BFD
D. IGP session protection
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
On the Cisco ASR9K router, when using the bandwidth command to specify the minimum guaranteed bandwidth to be allocated for a specific class of traffic, what will be used as the queuing algorithm?
A. custom queuing
B. CBWFQ
C. WFQ
D. FIFO
E. priority queuing
Correct Answer: B

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Cisco CCNA 200-125 Dumps Real Exam Questions & Answers (1-30)

QUESTION 1
Which two tasks does the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol perform? (Choose two.)
A. Set the IP gateway to be used by the network.
B. Perform host discovery used DHCPDISCOVER message.
C. Configure IP address parameters from DHCP server to a host.
D. Provide an easy management of layer 3 devices.
E. Monitor IP performance using the DHCP server.
F. Assign and renew IP address from the default pool.
Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 2
Scenario:
Refer to the topology. Your company has decided to connect the main office with three other remote branch offices
using point-to-point serial links.
You are required to troubleshoot and resolve OSPF neighbor adjacency issues between the main office and the routers
located in the remote branch offices.
200-125 dumps
200-125 dumps
200-125 dumps
200-125 dumps
200-125 dumps
200-125 dumps
200-125 dumps
200-125 dumps
An OSPF neighbor adjacency is not formed between R3 in the main office and R4 in the Branch1 office. What is causing the problem?
A. There is an area ID mismatch.
B. There is a Layer 2 issue; an encapsulation mismatch on serial links.
C. There is an OSPF hello and dead interval mismatch.
D. The R3 router ID is configured on R4.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
which three technical services support cloud computing ?
A. network-monitored power sources
B. layer 3 network routing
C. ip localization
D. redundant connections
E. VPN connectivity
F. extended SAN services
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 4
Which component of the routing table ranks routing protocols according to their preferences?
A. administrative distance
B. next hop
C. metric
D. routing protocol code
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which command can you execute to set the user inactivity timer to 10 seconds?
A. SW1(config-line)#exec-timeout 0 10
B. SW1(config-line)#exec-timeout 10
C. SW1(config-line)#absolute-timeout 0 10
D. SW1(config-line)#absolute-timeout 10
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which value is used to determine the active router in an HSRP default configuration?
A. Router loopback address
B. Router IP address
C. Router priority
D. Router tracking number
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
In which two formats can the IPv6 address fd15:0db8:0000:0000:0700:0003:400F:572B be written? 200-125 dumps (Choose two.)
A. fd15:0db8:0000:0000:700:3:400F:527B
B. fd15::db8::700:3:400F:527B
C. fd15:db8:0::700:3:4F:527B
D. fd15:0db8::7:3:4F:527B
E. fd15:db8::700:3:400F:572B
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 8
Which command can you enter to route all traffic that is destined for 192.168.0.0/20 to a specific interface?
A. router(config)#ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.240.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
B. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
C. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
D. router(config)#ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which statement about QoS default behavior is true?
A. Ports are untrusted by default.
B. VoIP traffic is passed without being tagged.
C. Video traffic is passed with a well-known DSCP value of 46.
D. Packets are classified internally with an environment.
E. Packets that arrive with a tag are untagged at the edge of an administrative domain.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 10
A security administrator wants to profile endpoints and gain visibility into attempted authentications. Which 802.1x mode allows these actions?
A. Monitor mode
B. High-Security mode
C. Low-impact mode
D. Closed mode
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which range represents the standard access list?
A. 99
B. 150
C. 299
D. 2000
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
If the primary root bridge experiences a power loss, which switch takes over?
A. switch 0004.9A1A.C182
B. switch 00E0.F90B.6BE3
C. switch 00E0.F726.3DC6
D. switch 0040.0BC0.90C5
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
What is the reason that the interface status is andquot;administratively down, line protocol downandquot;?
A. There is no encapsulation type configured.
B. There is a mismatch in encapsulation types.
C. The interface is not receiving any keepalives.
D. The interface has been configured with the shutdown command.
E. The interface needs to be configured as a DTE device.
F. The wrong type of cable is connected to the interface.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which statement about named ACLs is true?
A. They support standard and extended ACLs.
B. They are used to filter usernames and passwords for Telnet and SSH.
C. They are used to filter Layer 7 traffic.
D. They support standard ACLs only.
E. They are used to rate limit traffic destined to targeted networks.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
Each of these four switches has been configured with a hostname, as well as being configured to run RSTP. No other configuration changes have been made. Which three of these show the correct RSTP port roles for the indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose three.)
A. SwitchA, Fa0/2, designated
B. SwitchA, Fa0/1, root
C. SwitchB, Gi0/2, root
D. SwitchB, Gi0/1, designated
E. SwitchC, Fa0/2, root
F. SwitchD, Gi0/2, root
Correct Answer: ABF

QUESTION 16
Which three of these statements regarding 802.1Q trunking are correct? (Choose three.)
A. 802.1Q native VLAN frames are untagged by default.
B. 802.1Q trunking ports can also be secure ports.
C. 802.1Q trunks can use 10 Mb/s Ethernet interfaces.
D. 802.1Q trunks require full-duplex, point-to-point connectivity.
E. 802.1Q trunks should have native VLANs that are the same at both ends.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 17
Scenario
Refer to the topology. Your company has decided to connect the main office with three other remote branch offices using point-to-point serial links.
You are required to troubleshoot and resolve OSPF neighbor adjacency issues between the main office and the routers located in the remote branch offices. 200-125 dumps
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An OSPF neighbor adjacency is not formed between R3 in the main office and R5 in the Branch2 office. What is causing the problem?
A. There is an area ID mismatch.
B. There is a PPP authentication issue; a password mismatch.
C. There is an OSPF hello and dead interval mismatch.
D. There is a missing network command in the OSPF process on R5.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Which feature is config by setting a variance that is at least 2 times the metric?
A. unequal cost load balancing
B. path selection
C. equal cost load balancing
D. path count
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Which three encapsulation layers in the OSI model are combined into the TCP/IP application layer?(Choose three)
A. Session
B. transport
C. presentation
D. application
E. data-link
F. network
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 20
When a router is unable to find a known route in the routing table,how dose it handle the pacet?
A. It sends the packet to the next hop address
B. It sends the packet to the gateway of last resort
C. It discards the packet
D. It sends the packet over the route with the best metric
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
Which three are valid modes for a switch port used as a VLAN trunk? (Choose three.)
A. transparent
B. auto
C. on
D. desirable
E. blocking
F. forwarding
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 22
Which two components are used to identify a neighbor in a BGP configuration? (Choose two.)
A. autonomous system number
B. version number
C. router ID
D. subnet mask
E. IP address
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 23
While troubleshooting a connection problem on a computer, you determined that the computer can ping a specific web server but it cannot connect to TCP port 80 on that server. 200-125 dumps Which reason for the problem is most likely true?
A. A VLAN number is incorrect.
B. A Route is missing
C. An ARP table entry is missing.
D. An ACL is blocking the TCP port.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
Which two statements about IPv6 router advertisement messages are true? (Choose two.)
A. They use ICMPv6 type 134.
B. The advertised prefix length must be 64 bits.
C. The advertised prefix length must be 48 bits.
D. They are sourced from the configured IPv6 interface address.
E. Their destination is always the link-local address of the neighboring node.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 25
Refer to the graphic.
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R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3. What are possible reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)
A. All of the routers need to be configured for backbone Area 1.
B. R1 and R2 are the DR and BDR, so OSPF will not establish neighbor adjacency with R3.
C. A static route has been configured from R1 to R3 and prevents the neighbor adjacency from being established.
D. The hello and dead interval timers are not set to the same values on R1 and R3.
E. EIGRP is also configured on these routers with a lower administrative distance.
F. R1 and R3 are configured in different areas.
Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.)
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A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.
B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.
C. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.
D. Ensure the switch has power.
E. Reboot all of the devices.
F. Reseat all cables.
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 27
Which three circumstances can cause a GRE tunnel to be in an up/down state? (Choose three.)
A. The tunnel interface IP address is misconfigured.
B. The tunnel interface is down.
C. A valid route to the destination address is missing from the routing table.
D. The tunnel address is routed through the tunnel itself.
E. The ISP is blocking the traffic.
F. An ACL is blocking the outbound traffic.
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 28
A network administrator needs to configure a serial link between the main office and a remote location. The router at the remote office is a non-Cisco router. How should the network administrator configure the serial interface of the main office router to make the connection?
A. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(config-if)# no shut
B. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(config-if)# encapsulation ppp Main(config-if)# no shut
C. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay Main(config-if)# authentication chap Main(config-if)# no shut
D. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0 Main(config-if)#ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252 Main(configif)#encapsulation ietf Main(config-if)# no shut
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
Refer to the exhibit.
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Which three statements correctly describe Network Device A? (Choose three.)
A. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does not require an IP address.
B. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does require an IP address on a unique IP subnet.
C. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 2 device for the PCs to communicate with each other.
D. With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 3 device for the PCs to communicate with each other.
E. With a network wide mask of 255.255.254.0, each interface does not require an IP address.
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 30
Which IPV6 feature is supported in IPV4 but is not commonly used?
A. unicast
B. multicast
C. anycast
D. broadcast
Correct Answer: C

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CompTIA Server+ SK0-003 Dumps Exam Real Questions & Answers (1-30)

QUESTION 1
A technician has fixed a reported issue with a heavily used software program and users have verified that the program is working correctly. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?
A. Document the process and update the baseline.
B. Test the theory of probable cause and verify with the software vendor.
C. Establish a plan of action to be included in the business impact analysis.
D. Implement the software manufacturer workaround.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
After installing a new hard drive into a server for the purpose of mirroring the data from the first drive to the second one, the server displays an “operating system not found” error. Which of the following should the technician do to boot the server from the original drive?
A. Replace the second drive with a hot swappable one.
B. Swap the drive boot order in the BIOS.
C. Make the second disk active under the disk management tool.
D. Rebuild the array using the hardware RAID tool at boot.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which of the following MUST be done when imaging a Windows Server that will be used as a template?
A. Remove software
B. Run Windows Updates
C. Update drivers
D. Sysprep
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
A technician works for a company that has recently been affected by a virus. The virus entered the network by using port 6000. Port 6000 is used by an application located on a server. The technician has been asked to block this port on all servers and computers except for the one server which uses this port.
Which of the following should the technician do?
A. Update the antivirus application
B. Install critical update security patches
C. Adjust the software firewall settings
D. Replace the current antivirus program
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
A technician manages a server that contains sensitive data. The server currently has two hard drives, one hosting the operating system and other generic files and the second hosting sensitive data. The technician needs to implement a technology that would guard against data loss for only the sensitive data, while adding only one additional hard drive. Which of the following should the technician implement to avoid reformatting any drives?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 3
D. RAID 5
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
When planning for redundant power sources in a server deployment, which of the following should be purchased? (Select TWO).
A. RAID controllers
B. Multiple UPSs
C. Redundant cooling
D. Dual NICs
E. Redundant power supplies
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 7
Which of the following is an advantage of RAID 0?
A. Mirrors data
B. Redundancy
C. Speed
D. Automatic hot spare
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
A technician is installing a server with sixteen 1 TB drives. SK0-003 dumps They want the benefit of both speed and redundancy. Which of the following RAID configurations should be used?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 3
D. RAID 50
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which of the following types of UPS would be used with equipment that is very sensitive to power fluctuations?
A. Offline / Standby
B. Line interactive
C. Rackmount
D. Online / Double Conversion
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
When a technician left the server room Monday evening everything was operational. When the technician returned Tuesday morning, the front bezel was off of the mail server, and it had been powered off. Which of the following should be checked FIRST?
A. TCP/IP settings
B. RAID configuration
C. Whether the power cord is attached
D. Server room access log
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which of the following server roles allows a server to translate fully qualified domain names into IP addresses?
A. Directory services server
B. NTP server
C. DHCP server
D. DNS server
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
A technician has just finished installing a new server into a server rack. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT to complete the installation documentation?
A. Update drivers, update operating system (e.g. Windows Update), create server baseline, create a new network diagram, update change management procedures
B. Create server baseline, label server, store vendor-specific documentation, update network diagrams, update asset tracking information
C. Create server baseline, assign server roles, install tape drive, delete network diagram, label server, update operating system (e.g. Windows Update)
D. Install applications on server, install external drives, toss vendor-specific documentation, update network diagrams
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
A small business has had unauthorized people enter their server room and damage their servers. Which of the following locks for the door would BEST prevent unauthorized people from accessing the server room?
A. Biometric
B. Keypad
C. Barcode
D. Key lock
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
A technician is troubleshooting a lack of Internet connectivity affecting their entire office. The technician suspects the issue is with their Internet Service Provider failing to provide service. Which of the following command line tools should the technician use to BEST test this theory?
A. tracert
B. ipconfig
C. netstat
D. nslookup
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
An administrator needs to install a 2U server into a rack. Which of the following shows how much space, in height, needs to be available for the server to fit in the rack?
A. 1.75 inches (4.45 cm)
B. 2.5 inches (6.35 cm)
C. 3.5 inches (8.89 cm)
D. 4.25 inches (10.8 cm)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
A customer has purchased a triple channel memory kit containing three DDR3 RAM modules. The server the RAM is intended for only has a dual channel capable motherboard. SK0-003 dumps Which of the following is the BEST action to perform?
A. Install only two modules as the RAM has to be installed in pairs
B. Purchase one additional RAM module to make it even. Three modules will function as triple channel and the additional module will be for parity
C. Purchase dual channel memory. The triple channel memory may be incompatible with the server motherboard
D. Install the RAM. Two modules will perform as dual channel and one as single channel
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Which of the following processor technologies is typically supported on current enterprise class UNIX servers but not enterprise class Windows Servers?
A. RISC
B. CISC
C. Multi-threading
D. 64-bit
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
An administrator needs to connect servers to the Fiber Channel SAN. Which of the following should the administrator install in the servers to allow this connection?
A. Riser
B. HBA
C. SCSI card
D. SAS card
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
An administrator creates a new directory then shares it on the Windows server. The administrator sets the permissions for everyone to “Modify” but users report they are unable to create or delete documents.
Which of the following is the cause?
A. The administrator forgot to change the share permissions
B. The users were not part of the “Everyone” built in group
C. The administrator shared the files but not the folder
D. “Modify” only allows users to change existing documents
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
An administrator has just finished physically replacing the system board in a Windows domain controller. Which of the following must be done before booting the server back into Windows?
A. Update the time and date in the BIOS.
B. Update the firmware on the SCSI controller.
C. Update the firmware to the latest version.
D. Configure IPMI on the new board.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
A server was recently updated with the latest antivirus definitions. Immediately after the update, the server begins to report `file not found’ errors for a mission critical application. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this?
A. The update was done incorrectly and now the server needs to be restarted.
B. The update has discovered viruses on the server and removed those virus files.
C. The update requires a reboot for the files to process correctly.
D. The update has quarantined files that are false positives.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
Which of the following are the BEST tools to test connectivity between two hosts? (Select TWO).
A. netstat
B. nslookup
C. ipconfig
D. traceroute
E. pathping
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 23
An administrator is overseeing the backup process and tapes utilized by a former employee. Which of the following is the BEST way for the administrator to proceed?
A. Utilize differential backups.
B. Verify the tape drives are functional.
C. Verify that the backups are functional.
D. Utilize incremental backups.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
A staff member reports that they cannot access the shared folder on the network; however, other staff members are reporting that they can access the shared folder. Which of the following is the BEST way to identify the problem?
A. The administrator should monitor all traffic between the staff member and the server.
B. The administrator should reconfigure the RAID configuration to allow more space.
C. The administrator should map a drive using the net use command.
D. The administrator should allow the staff member to use a USB drive.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
An administrator needs to maintain 1TB of storage for mission critical application data. Fault tolerance and performance are the most important considerations.
Cost is not a factor at all. Which of the following RAID configurations would be the BEST choice to meet the criteria for the storage array?
A. RAID 6 with six 250GB hard drives
B. RAID 10 with eight 250GB hard drives
C. RAID 5 with five 250GB hard drives
D. RAID 0 with eight 250GB hard drives
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
Which of the following storage interface protocols has the FASTEST speeds?
A. Ultra2 SCSI
B. SATA
C. Ultra320 SCSI
D. SAS
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
Which of the following is a benefit of application virtualization? SK0-003 dumps
A. The need for multiple licenses of any software is unnecessary.
B. Interoperability of disparate programs is easily attained.
C. Server loads are greatly reduced from lowered traffic.
D. Applications are easily accessible from anywhere on the LAN.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
Which of the following is the MOST likely to cause a server power supply fan to fail but allows the power supply to still be functional?
A. Dust
B. Power Surge
C. Excessive humidity
D. High temperatures
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
A server has lost communication to its drives located on a fiber channel SAN. An administrator notices that the indicator lights on both the HBA and the SAN switch are not lit. Which of the following are the MOST likely causes of the problem? (Select THREE).
A. Failed HBA
B. Failed switch port
C. Faulty fiber cable
D. Faulty driver
E. Failed hard drives
F. Faulty configuration
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 30
A Windows server has rebooted by itself several times. There are several functioning non- Windows servers in the same rack that are connected to the same uninterruptible power supply (UPS). Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the reboots?
A. The UPS is malfunctioning.
B. The user traffic to the server is too high.
C. A BSOD is occurring.
D. The non-Windows servers cannot be located on the same UPS as the Windows server.
Correct Answer: C

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New CompTIA Network+ N10-006 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (1-30)

QUESTION 1
Which of the following types of equipment should be used for telecommunications equipment and have an open design?
A. 2j4 post racks
B. Rail Racks
C. Vertical frame
D. Ladder racks
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A technician has determined the most likely cause of an issue and implement a solution. Which of the following is the NEXT step that should be taken?
A. Document the findings, actions, and outcomes
B. Duplicate the problem if possible
C. Verify system functionality
D. Make an archival backup
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Joe, and administrator, is setting up three more switches in the test lab and is configuring the switches. He is verifying the connectivity but when he pings one of the switches he receives andquot;Destination Unreachableandquot;. Which of the following issues could this be?
A. Denial of service attack
B. Misconfigured DNS settings
C. Misconfigured Split Horizon
D. RADIUSauthenticationerrors
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
A technician has verified that a recent loss of network connectivity to multiple workstations is due to a bad CAT5 cable in the server room wall. Which of the following tools can be used to locate its physical location within the wall?
A. Cable certifier
B. Multimeter
C. Cabletester
D. Toner probe
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
An area to which access is controlled by retina scan is protected by which of the following security measure types?
A. Two-factor authentication
B. Biometric
C. Cipher locks
D. Optical reader
E. Proximity reader
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
A technician needs to set aside addresses in a DHCP pool so that certain servers always receive the same address.
Which of the following should be configured? N10-006 dumps
A. Leases
B. Helper addresses
C. Scopes
D. Reservations
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
A client is concerned about a hacker compromising a network in order to gain access to confidential research dat
A. Which of the following could be implemented to redirect any attackers on the network?
B. DMZ
C. Content Filter
D. Botnet
E. Honeypot
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
There has been an increased amount of successful social engineering attacks at a corporate office. Which of the following will reduce this attack in the near future?
A. Helpdesk training
B. Appropriate use policy
C. User awareness training
D. Personal Identifiable Information
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which of the following protocols is used to encapsulate other network layer protocols such as multicast and IPX over WAN connections?
A. MPLS
B. ESP
C. GRE
D. PPP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which of the following network elements enables unified communication devices to connect to and traverse traffic onto the PSTN?
A. Access switch
B. UC gateway
C. UC server
D. Edge router
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
A technician is being tasked to centralize the management of the switches and segment the switches by broadcast domains. The company is currently all on VLAN1 using a single private IP address range with a 24 bit mask. The supervisor wants VLAN 100 to be the management subnet and all switches to share the VLAN information. Which of the following options would work BEST to accomplish these requirements?
A. Use VLSM on the IP address range, with STP and 802.1q on the inter switch connections with native VLAN100
B. Use VLSM on the IP address range with VTP and 802.1x on all inter switch connections with native VLAN100
C. Use VLSM on VLAN1, with VTP and 802.1w on the inter switch connections with native VLAN 100
D. Use VLSM on the IP address range with VTP and 802.1q on the inter switch connections with native VLAN
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
A company has added several new employees, which has caused the network traffic to increase by 200%. The network traffic increase from the new employees was only expected to be 20% to 30%. The administration suspects that the network may have been compromised. Which of the following should the network administrator have done previously to minimize the possibility of a network breach?
A. Create VLANs to segment the network traffic
B. Place a network sniffer on segments with new employees
C. Provide end user awareness and training for employees
D. Ensure best practices were implemented when creating new user accounts
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which of the following is true about the main difference between a web session that uses port 80 and one that uses port 443?
A. Port 80 web sessions often use application-level encryption, while port 443 sessions often use transport-level encryption.
B. Port 80 web session cannot use encryption, while port 443 sessions are encrypted using web certificates.
C. Port 80 web sessions can use web application proxies, while port 443 sessions cannot traverse web application proxies.
D. Port 80 web sessions are prone to man-in-the-middle attacks, while port 443 sessions are immune from man-in- themiddle attacks.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which of the following is the main difference between TCP and UDP?
A. TCP data fows in two directions, while UDP data fows from server to client.
B. The TCPheaderimplementsfags, whiletheUDPheader doesnot.
C. The TCP header implements checksum, while the UDP header does not.
D. TCP connections can be secured by stateful firewalls, while UDP connections cannot.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
A network administrator needs to allow employees to securely upload files to a remote server. Which of the following should be allowed on the firewall?
A. 20
B. 21
C. 22
D. 161
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
A company has a network with three switches, each one with eight ports. The switch is connected to a router that has a hub with four computers plugged into one of its interfaces. N10-006 dumps How many broadcast domains are present in this company\’s network
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 16
E. 28
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
A home office has a dozen devices that need a class based DHCP device to assign addresses. The subnet only has one octet for the host portion of each device. Which of the following IP addresses would be assigned to the default gateway?
A. 10.0.0.1
B. 169.254.0.1
C. 192.168.0.1
D. 224.0.0.1
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
A user calls the help desk and states that he was working on a spreadsheet and was unable to print it. However, his colleagues are able to print their documents to the same shared printer. Which of the following should be the FIRST question the helpdesk asks?
A. Does the printer have toner?
B. Are there any errors on the printer display?
C. Is the user able to access any network resources?
D. Is the printer powered up?
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which of the following is MOST likely to use an RJ-11 connector to connect a computer to an ISP using a POTS line?
A. Multilayer switch
B. Access point
C. Analog modem
D. DOCSIS modem
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
A technician wants to update the organization\’s disaster recovery plans. Which of the following will allow network devices to be replaced quickly in the event of a device failure?
A. Vendor documentation
B. Archivesjbackups
C. Proper asset tagging and labeling
D. Network Baseline
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
An outside organization has completed a penetration test for a company. One of the items on the report is reflecting the ability to read SSL traffic from the web server. Which of the following is the MOST likely mitigation for this reported item?
A. Ensure patches are deployed
B. Install an IDS on the network
C. Configure the firewall to block traffic on port 443
D. Implement a VPN for employees
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
The ability to make access decisions based on an examination of Windows registry settings, antivirus software, and AD membership status is an example of which of the following NAC features?
A. Quarantine network
B. Persistent agents
C. Posture assessment
D. Non-persistent agents
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
A network technician is replacing security devices that protect the DMZ for a client. The client has an application that allows external users to access the application remotely. After replacing the devices, the external users are unable to connect remotely to the application. Which of the following is MOST likely misconfigured?
A. Content filter
B. Firewall
C. DNS
D. DHCP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
A company has just implemented VoIP. Prior to the implementation, all of the switches were upgraded to layer 3 capable in order to more adequately route packages. This is an example of which of the following network segmentation techniques?
A. Compliance implementation
B. Separate public private newtworking
C. Honeypot implementation
D. Performance optimization
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
A company has seen an increase in ransomware across the enterprise. Which of the following should be implemented to reduce the occurrences?
A. ARP inspection
B. Intrusion detection system
C. Web content filtering
D. Port filtering
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
A network technician has detected a personal computer that has been physically connected to the corporate network.
Which of the following commands would the network technician use to locate this unauthorized computer and determine the interface it is connected to?
A. nbtstat -a
B. show mac address-table
C. show interface status
D. show ip access-list
E. nslookup hostname
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
A network technician is utilizing a network protocol analyzer to troubleshoot issues that a user has been experiencing when uploading work to the internal FTP server. N10-006 dumps Which of the following default port numbers should the technician set the analyzer to highlight when creating a report? (Select TWO).
A. 20
B. 21
C. 22
D. 23
E. 67
F. 68
G. 69
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 28
A company is building a new 10Gb Ethernet top of rack network. Which of the following media is MOST cost-effective for this implementation?
A. CAT5e
B. Multicode fiber
C. Single mode fiber
D. Fiber Channel
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
The administrator\’s network has OSPF for the internal routing protocol. One port going out to the Internet is congested.
The data is going out to the Internet, but queues up before sending. Which of the following would resolve this issue?
Output: Fast Ethernet 0 is up, line protocol is up Int ip address is 10.20.130.5j25 MTU 1500 bytes, BW10000kbit, DLY100usec Reliability 255j255, Tx load 1j255, Rx load 1j255 Encapsulationospf, loopbacknotset Keep alive 10 Halfduplex, 100Mbjs, 100BaseTxjFx Received 1052993 broadcasts 0 input errors 983881 packets output, 768588 bytes 0 output errors, 0 collisions, 0 resets
A. Set the loopback address
B. Change the IP address
C. Changetheslashnotation
D. Change duplex to full
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
A NAC service has discovered a virus on a client laptop. In which of the following locations would the NAC service place the laptop?
A. On the DMZ network
B. On the sandbox network
C. On the honeypot
D. On the quarantine network
Correct Answer: D

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CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI LX0-104 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (Q1-Q40)

QUESTION 1
Which of the following is a correct entry in the /etc/hosts file?
A. localhost 127.0.0.1 localhost.localdomain
B. localhost.localdomain localhost 127.0.0.1
C. localhost localhost.localdomain 127.0.0.1
D. 127.0.0.1 localhost.localdomain localhost
E. localhost.localdomain 127.0.0.1 localhost
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which of the following statements is valid in the file /etc/nsswitch.conf?
A. multi on
B. 192.168.168.4 dns-server
C. hosts: files dns
D. include /etc/nsswitch.d/
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What is NTP?
A. A more secure protocol replacement for FTP.
B. A protocol for synchronizing time on computers.
C. A routing aid for finding next hops on a network.
D. A simple tunnelling protocol for computers behind firewalls.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which of the following files, when existing, affect the behavior of the Bash shell? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. ~/.bashconf
B. ~/.bashrc
C. ~/.bashdefaults
D. ~/.bash_etc
E. ~/.bash_profile
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 5
Which of the following statements is true regarding the /etc/shadow file?
A. /etc/shadow may not be readable or writable by user root.
B. Only root is allowed to read and write /etc/shadow.
C. All users have full read and write access to /etc/shadow.
D. All users have full read access to /etc/shadow.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Why should a regular user edit his personal crontab by using the command crontab instead of just editing his crontab file manually?
A. Because user specific crontab entries are stored in a common database and must be extracted before editing.
B. Because crontab starts the cron daemon in case it is not running due to no other crontab entries existing.
C. Because user specific crontab entries are stored in a special directory which is maintained by the cron daemon and not writable for regular users.
D. Because crontab collects information about all users crontabs and recommends similar commands used by other users of the system.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which of the following is true regarding the mail queue of a mail server? LX0-104 dumps (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. The messages in the queue must be readable by all users as the queue may contain messages for several users.
B. According to the Filesystem Hierarchy Standard (FHS) the queue is located at /var/mail/spool.
C. There is exactly one mail queue per user which holds all new messages for that user before they are moved to other folders by the user\’s mail client.
D. The queue holds all messages that are processed by the mail server but have not yet been completely delivered.
E. The content of the mail queue can be queried by the command mailq.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 8
Which of the following files holds the configuration for journald when running systemd?
A. /etc/systemd/journalctl.conf
B. /etc/systemd/journald.conf
C. /etc/systemd/systemd-journald.conf
D. /etc/systemd/systemd-journalctl.conf
E. /usr/lib/systemd/journalctl.conf
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which of the following commands can be used to associate open TCP ports with the processes that opened the ports?
A. ptrace
B. strace
C. debug
D. nessus
E. lsof
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 10
When the command echo $? outputs 1, which of the following statements are true?
A. It is the process ID of the echo command.
B. It is the process ID of the current shell.
C. It is the exit value of the command executed immediately before echo.
D. It is the exit value of the echo command.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
What entry can be added to the syslog.conf file to have all syslog messages generated by a system displayed on console 12?
A. *.* /dev/tty12
B. /var/log/messages | /dev/tty12
C. | /dev/tty12
D. syslog tty12
E. mail.* /dev/tty12
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which of the following details can be found in an entry of a user specific crontab? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. The verbal description of the job.
B. The syslog facility to where the output of the job should be sent.
C. The time when the cron job should run.
D. The command that should be started by the cron job.
E. The name of the user which should run the job.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 13
Which of the following commands are used to manage the environment and shell variables within a shell process? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. export
B. init
C. reset
D. set
E. tset
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 14
What is true about the ntpdate command?
A. It is the primary management command for the NTP time server.
B. It updates the local system\’s date (i.e. day, month and year) but not the time (i.e. hours, minutes, seconds).
C. It queries one or more NTP time servers and adjusts the system time accordingly.
D. It sends the local system time to one or many remote NTP time servers for redistribution.
E. It can be used by any user to set the user clock independently of the system clock.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Which of the following resources can be directly limited for a given user using ulimit? (Choose THREE correct answers.)
A. Maximum seconds of CPU time spent.
B. Maximum number of open file descriptors.
C. Maximum number of processes available.
D. Maximum number of concurrent login sessions.
E. Maximum seconds of login duration per session.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 16
Each entry in a crontab must end with what character?
A. Tab
B. Space
C. Backslash
D. Newline
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Which of the following are valid IPv4 network masks? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. 255.255.0.0
B. 255.255.255.65
C. 255.255.0.255
D. 0.0.0.1
E. 255.255.255.248
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 18
Which of the following fields can be found in the /etc/group file? (Choose THREE correct answers.)
A. The list of users that belong to the group.
B. The home directory of the group.
C. The name of the group.
D. The description of the group.
E. The password of the group.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 19
Which commands can be used to change a user\’s account aging information? (Choose THREE correct answers.)
A. usermod
B. passwd
C. chattr
D. chage
E. chsh
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 20
Which configuration file would be edited to change the default options for outbound SSH sessions?
A. /etc/ssh/sshd_config
B. /etc/ssh/ssh
C. /etc/ssh/client
D. /etc/ssh/ssh_config
E. /etc/ssh/ssh_client
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
What is not contained in the locale setting of the operating system? LX0-104 dumps
A. currency symbol
B. language
C. timezone
D. thousands separator
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Which of the following keywords can be used in the file /etc/resolv.conf? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. substitute
B. nameserver
C. search
D. lookup
E. method
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 23
With syslog, what is a facility?
A. Facilities are different connection interfaces to syslog. Each facility has its own device in /dev/syslog/.
B. From syslog\’s point of view, each Unix process that issues messages is a facility.
C. Facilities describe the severity of a log message such as emerg or info.
D. When using remote logging, the hostname of the server that generated a message is called facility.
E. Facilities describe categories or groups of messages such as mail or auth.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 24
Which of the following IPv4 networks are reserved by IANA for private address assignment and private routing? (Choose THREE correct answers.)
A. 127.0.0.0/8
B. 10.0.0.0/8
C. 169.255.0.0/16
D. 172.16.0.0/12
E. 192.168.0.0/16
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 25
On a machine running several X servers, how are the different instances of the X11 server identified?
A. By a fixed UUID that is defined in the X11 configuration file.
B. By a unique IPv6 address from the fe80::/64 subnet.
C. By the name of the user that runs the X server like x11:bob.
D. By a device name like /dev/X11/xservers/1.
E. By a display name like:1.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 26
Which of the following tools used for DNS debugging, reports not only the response from the name server but also details about the query?
A. dnsq
B. dig
C. hostname
D. dnslookup
E. zoneinfo
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
Which of the following commands gets the GnuPG public key with the id 63B4835B from the keyserver example.com?
A. gpg –keyserver hkp://example.com –recv-key 63B4835B
B. gpg –search-key hkp://[email protected]
C. gpg –keyserver gpg://example.com –get-key 63B4835B
D. gpg –keyserver hkp://example.com –add-key 63B4835B
E. gpg –keyserver gpg://example.com –key 63B4835B
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
What is the main difference between the batch and at commands?
A. The batch command will run multiple times. The at command will only run once.
B. The commands of a batch job run sequentially one after another while the commands in at jobs may run in parallel.
C. The at command reads commands from standard input. The batch command requires a command line argument.
D. The at command e-mails results to the user. The batch command logs results to syslog.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
How is a display manager started?
A. It is started by a user using the command startx.
B. It is started like any other system service by the init system.
C. It is started by inetd when a remote hosts connects to the X11 port.
D. It is started automatically when a X11 user logs in to the system console.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
When trying to unmount a device it is reported as being busy. Which of the following commands could be used to determine which process is causing this?
A. debug
B. lsof
C. nessus
D. strace
E. traceroute
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 31
Which of the following are operators used for comparisons by the test command? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. equals
B. =
C. -is
D. -eq
E. null
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 32
What of the following statements is true regarding a display manager?
A. A display manager handles remote X11 logins only and has no purpose on a system that is not attached to a network.
B. The display manager is configured in the X11 configuration file xorg.conf.
C. There is only one display manager X11DM that must be started on all systems running X11.
D. After system startup, the display manager handles the login of a user.
E. Without a display manager, no graphical programs can be run.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 33
What is true about UIDs and GIDs?
A. UIDs and GIDs share a common number space. Each time a new user or group is created, the next free ID is assigned.
B. The first four digits of each UID are the GID of the primary group of that user.
C. The GID of a group is always the sum of the UIDs of its members.
D. The number space is split up. UIDs usually reside in the range from 0 to 32767 while GIDs reside in the range from32768 to 65535.
E. There are distinct number spaces for UIDs and GIDs, i.e. the same number may be used as both a UID and a GID.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 34
What is the purpose of the sticky keys feature in X?
A. To assist users who have difficulty holding down multiple keys at once.
B. To prevent repeated input of a single character if the key is held down.
C. To ignore brief keystrokes according to a specified time limit.
D. To repeat the input of a single character.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 35
Which of the following configuration files should be modified to globally set shell variables for all users? LX0-104 dumps
A. /etc/bashrc
B. /etc/profile
C. ~/.bash_profile
D. /etc/.bashrc
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 36
For accessibility assistance, which of the following programs is an on-screen keyboard?
A. xkb
B. atkb
C. GOK
D. xOSK
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 37
After issuing:
function myfunction { echo $1 $2 ; }
in Bash, which output does:
myfunction A B C
Produce?
A. A B
B. A B C
C. A C
D. B C
E. C B A
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 38
What output will the following command sequence produce?
echo \’1 2 3 4 5 6\’ | while read a b c; do echo result: $c $b $a; done
A. result: 3 4 5 6 2 1
B. result: 1 2 3 4 5 6
C. result: 6 5 4
D. result: 6 5 4 3 2 1
E. result: 3 2 1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 39
Which of the following commands shows the current color depth of the X Server?
A. xcd
B. xcdepth
C. xwininfo
D. xcolordepth
E. cat /etc/X11
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 40
What is true regarding the time in a Linux system?
A. The BIOS clock of a computer always indicates the current local time and time zone.
B. Each application must convert the Unix time to the current time zone which is usually done by using standard libraries.
C. When the system is on the network, each query for the current time leads to a new network connection to a time server.
D. When the system time changes, running processes must be restarted in order to get the correct time.
Correct Answer: B

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New Citrix CCA-N 1Y0-253 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (Q1-Q25)

QUESTION 1
A Citrix Administrator needs to configure a single virtual server to accept TCP traffic on ports 80, 443 and ports between 10000 and 19999.
Which protocol type should the administrator use to accomplish this task?
A. ANY
B. UDP
C. SSL_TCP
D. SSL_PUSH
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which two pieces of information are required to create a virtual server? (Choose two.)
A. Port
B. Protocol
C. Subnet Mask
D. Gateway Address
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
Which two items are needed to import an SSL certificate? (Choose two.)
A. A public key
B. A private key
C. A root certificate
D. A server certificate
E. An intermediate certificate
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 4
Scenario: A company requires two-factor authentication using RSA tokens and Active Directory. The Citrix Administrator configured the following two authentication policies with these parameters:
– The policy named RSA_policy is used for RSA token authentication
– The policy named AD_policy is used for Active Directory authentication
What should the administrator do to protect the NetScaler Gateway virtual server from an attack against Active Directory?
A. Bind the RSA_policy in Primary Authentication Policies and bind the AD_policy in Secondary Authentication Policies.
B. Bind the AD_policy in Primary Authentication Policies and bind the RSA_policy in Secondary Authentication Policies.
C. Bind the AD_policy and the RSA_policy in Primary Authentication Policies and set the RSA_policy priority higher than the AD_policy.
D. Bind the AD_policy and the RSA_policy in Primary Authentication Policies and set the AD_policy priority higher than the RSA_policy.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Various users report that while accessing the Citrix NetScaler Gateway virtual server they get an error message that the public SSL certificate is NOT trusted. 1Y0-253 dumps
Which three steps should a Citrix Administrator take on the NetScaler to resolve this issue? (Choose three.)
A. Import the root certificate.
B. Import the intermediate certificate.
C. Download the root certificate from the vendor.
D. Link the root certificate to the intermediate certificate.
E. Download the intermediate certificate from the vendor.
F. Link the intermediate certificate to the existing server certificate.
Correct Answer: BEF

QUESTION 6
A Citrix Administrator needs to configure NetScaler Gateway to communicate with the StoreFront providing resources hosted on XenApp and XenDesktop.
Which IP address does the NetScaler use to route user connections to the StoreFront?
A. Subnet IP (SNIP)
B. NetScaler IP (NSIP)
C. User Source IP (USIP)
D. Client IP (CIP)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is implementing a NetScaler appliance for the first time. All clients will connect from a public network and all servers will reside on a private network.
Which deployment mode should the administrator use to implement the NetScaler?
A. Layer 2 (L2) mode
B. Layer 3 (L3) mode
C. Two-arm deployment mode
D. MAC-based forwarding mode
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which two IP addresses are required for a new NetScaler Gateway installation when using the First-Time Setup Wizard? (Choose two.)
A. Client IP (CIP)
B. Virtual IP (VIP)
C. Subnet IP (SNIP)
D. NetScaler IP (NSIP)
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 9
Which IP address must be unique on each node in a high availability configuration?
A. Virtual IP (VIP)
B. Mapped IP (MIP)
C. Subnet IP (SNIP)
D. NetScaler IP (NSIP)
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which component is required to allow users to launch Worx Home through a NetScaler Gateway?
A. App Controller
B. Citrix Receiver
C. Citrix StoreFront
D. NetScaler Gateway Plug-in
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Scenario: A company is considering using NetScaler appliances to load balance existing secured web servers. The company compliance policy does NOT allow any alterations of the SSL sessions between clients and web servers.
Which option should a Citrix Administrator configure on the NetScaler virtual server to meet the needs of the company?
A. SSL VPN
B. SSL Bridge
C. SSL Offload
D. SSL Renegotiation
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which two steps must a Citrix Administrator take to allow additional users to access resources using the NetScaler Gateway Plug-in after the administrator installs the universal license on the NetScaler Gateway? (Choose two.)
A. Set ICA Proxy to OFF.
B. Configure Citrix Receiver Home Page.
C. Change the authentication AAA settings.
D. Set Single Sign-on with Windows to OFF.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 13
Which two parameters are required for adding a new node to a cluster? (Choose two.)
A. Cluster IP of the new cluster node
B. NetScaler IP of the new cluster node
C. NetScaler IP of the existing cluster node
D. Remote NetScaler user name and password
E. Backplane interface of the existing cluster node
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 14
Scenario: Users report that they are being presented with a certificate error when they attempt to access the remote access website of the company. 1Y0-253 dumps No changes were made to the NetScaler certificates recently.
What should the Citrix Administrator check on the NetScaler to identify this issue?
A. Cert Links
B. OCSP Binding
C. Certificate Format
D. Certificate Expiry Date
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Which monitor should a Citrix Administrator configure to monitor a StoreFront server group with SSL enabled?
A. TCP
B. SSL_TCP
C. STOREFRONT with “Secure” checked
D. CITRIX-WEB-INTERFACE with “Secure” checked
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
What should be done to ensure high availability (HA) failover in a NetScaler HA configuration?
A. Disable all unused system interfaces.
B. Disable the IPv6 feature on the NetScaler.
C. Enable all used and unused system interfaces.
D. Change the NetScaler HA setup to two-arm mode.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
A Citrix Administrator needs to track load balanced traffic from the NetScaler to separate, individual subnets.
Which IP address should be used to do this?
A. Virtual IP (VIP)
B. Mapped IP (MIP)
C. NetScaler IP (NSIP)
D. Subnet IP (SNIP)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is configuring user authentication on the NetScaler Gateway. The administrator wants to use the same login name that is used to log into Windows-based domain joined workstations.
Which Server Logon Name Attribute should be used?
A. memberOf
B. displayName
C. sAMAccountName
D. userAccountControl
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Two StoreFront servers in an environment need to be addressed with a single URL.
Which feature should a Citrix Administrator enable to meet this requirement?
A. SSL VPN
B. Load Balancing
C. Integrated Caching
D. Application Firewall
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which two steps must a Citrix Administrator complete to configure the SSL Offloading feature on a NetScaler appliance? (Choose two.)
A. Create a DNS virtual server.
B. Configure an AAA virtual server.
C. Create an SSL VPN virtual server.
D. Create a load balancing virtual server.
E. Import a valid certification-key pair and bind it to the virtual server.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 21
A Citrix Administrator needs to mask the server name used by a web server, without exposing the web server virtual directory structure.
Which policy should the administrator use to complete this task?
A. Responder
B. Content Filtering
C. Content Switching
D. URL Transformation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
A Citrix Administrator is replacing an expired SSL certificate bound to a virtual server.
The established ICA connections to the virtual server will display as _______. 1Y0-253 dumps (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
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C. disconnected
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Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
At the onset of a XenDesktop 7.5 with NetScaler Gateway 10.5 proof-of-concept, users report they are unable to access desktop and server OS machines.
Which configuration might be preventing users from accessing desktop and server OS machines?
A. Single-hop DMZ with StoreFront
B. Double-hop DMZ with StoreFront
C. Single-hop DMZ with Web Interface
D. Double-hop DMZ with Web Interface
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
A Citrix Administrator needs to deploy StoreFront services to thin clients which are running the Online plugin.
Which option should the administrator configure so that the thin clients can connect to the StoreFront servers?
A. Export Provisioning File
B. Integrate with Citrix Online
C. Configure Legacy Support
D. Manage Delivery Controllers
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
Scenario: A user informs a Citrix Administrator that audio quality has degraded on their virtual desktop that uses personal vDisk. Audio was functioning correctly the previous day. Which action should the administrator take to investigate this issue?
A. Check the Receiver log on the client device.
B. Check the audio redirection setting in a Citrix policy.
C. Review the event log on the user’s desktop for errors.
D. Open session details for the user in Citrix Director.
Correct Answer: D

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Best EC-COUNCIL CCISO 712-50 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-30)

QUESTION 1
When dealing with risk, the information security practitioner may choose to:
A. assign
B. transfer
C. acknowledge
D. defer
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
According to the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) SP 800-40, which of the following considerations are MOST important when creating a vulnerability management program?
A. Susceptibility to attack, mitigation response time, and cost
B. Attack vectors, controls cost, and investigation staffing needs
C. Vulnerability exploitation, attack recovery, and mean time to repair
D. Susceptibility to attack, expected duration of attack, and mitigation availability
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Acme Inc. has engaged a third party vendor to provide 99.999% up-time for their online web presence and had them contractually agree to this service level agreement. What type of risk tolerance is Acme exhibiting? (choose the BEST answer):
A. low risk-tolerance
B. high risk-tolerance
C. moderate risk-tolerance
D. medium-high risk-tolerance
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which of the following is a major benefit of applying risk levels?
A. Risk management governance becomes easier since most risks remain low once mitigated
B. Resources are not wasted on risks that are already managed to an acceptable level
C. Risk budgets are more easily managed due to fewer identified risks as a result of using a methodology
D. Risk appetite can increase within the organization once the levels are understood
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
To get an Information Security project back on schedule, 712-50 dumps which of the following will provide the MOST help?
A. Upper management support
B. More frequent project milestone meetings
C. Stakeholder support
D. Extend work hours
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
The process to evaluate the technical and non-technical security controls of an IT system to validate that a given design and implementation meet a specific set of security requirements is called
A. Security certification
B. Security system analysis
C. Security accreditation
D. Alignment with business practices and goals.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
When managing the security architecture for your company you must consider:
A. Security and IT Staff size
B. Company Values
C. Budget
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is a term related to risk management that represents the estimated frequency at which a threat is expected to transpire?
A. Single Loss Expectancy (SLE)
B. Exposure Factor (EF)
C. Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO)
D. Temporal Probability (TP)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
You have recently drafted a revised information security policy. From whom should you seek endorsement in order to have the GREATEST chance for adoption and implementation throughout the entire organization?
A. Chief Information Security Officer
B. Chief Executive Officer
C. Chief Information Officer
D. Chief Legal Counsel
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Scenario: Your organization employs single sign-on (user name and password only) as a convenience to your employees to access organizational systems and data. Permission to individual systems and databases is vetted and approved through supervisors and data owners to ensure that only approved personnel can use particular applications or retrieve information. All employees have access to their own human resource information, including the ability to change their bank routing and account information and other personal details through the Employee Self-Service application. All employees have access to the organizational VPN.
What type of control is being implemented by supervisors and data owners?
A. Management
B. Operational
C. Technical
D. Administrative
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
You manage a newly created Security Operations Center (SOC), your team is being inundated with security alerts and don\’t know what to do. What is the BEST approach to handle this situation?
A. Tell the team to do their best and respond to each alert
B. Tune the sensors to help reduce false positives so the team can react better
C. Request additional resources to handle the workload
D. Tell the team to only respond to the critical and high alerts
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Within an organization\’s vulnerability management program, who has the responsibility to implement remediation actions?
A. Security officer
B. Data owner
C. Vulnerability engineer
D. System administrator
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Scenario: Most industries require compliance with multiple government regulations and/or industry standards to meet data protection and privacy mandates. When multiple regulations or standards apply to your industry you should set controls to meet the:
A. Easiest regulation or standard to implement
B. Stricter regulation or standard
C. Most complex standard to implement
D. Recommendations of your Legal Staff
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
When dealing with Security Incident Response procedures, 712-50 dumps which of the following steps come FIRST when reacting to an incident?
A. Escalation
B. Recovery
C. Eradication
D. Containment
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Which of the following is a weakness of an asset or group of assets that can be exploited by one or more threats?
A. Threat
B. Vulnerability
C. Attack vector
D. Exploitation
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
What are the primary reasons for the development of a business case for a security project?
A. To estimate risk and negate liability to the company
B. To understand the attack vectors and attack sources
C. To communicate risk and forecast resource needs
D. To forecast usage and cost per software licensing
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
An organization is required to implement background checks on all employees with access to databases containing credit card information. This is considered a security
A. Procedural control
B. Management control
C. Technical control
D. Administrative control
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Scenario: Your program is developed around minimizing risk to information by focusing on people, technology, and operations.
An effective way to evaluate the effectiveness of an information security awareness program for end users, especially senior executives, is to conduct periodic:
A. Controlled spear phishing campaigns
B. Password changes
C. Baselining of computer systems
D. Scanning for viruses
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
SQL injection is a very popular and successful injection attack method. Identify the basic SQL injection text:
A. ` o 1=1 –
B. /../../../../
C. andquot;DROPTABLE USERNAMEandquot;
D. NOPS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
When measuring the effectiveness of an Information Security Management System which one of the following would be MOST LIKELY used as a metric framework?
A. ISO 27001
B. PRINCE2
C. ISO 27004
D. ITILv3
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
An organization has defined a set of standard security controls. This organization has also defined the circumstances and conditions in which they must be applied. What is the NEXT logical step in applying the controls in the organization?
A. Determine the risk tolerance
B. Perform an asset classification
C. Create an architecture gap analysis
D. Analyze existing controls on systems
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
The risk found after a control has been fully implemented is called:
A. Residual Risk
B. Total Risk
C. Post implementation risk
D. Transferred risk
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
SCENARIO: A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) recently had a third party conduct an audit of the security program. Internal policies and international standards were used as audit baselines. The audit report was presented to the CISO and a variety of high, medium and low rated gaps were identified.
The CISO has implemented remediation activities. Which of the following is the MOST logical next step?
A. Validate the effectiveness of applied controls
B. Validate security program resource requirements
C. Report the audit findings and remediation status to business stake holders
D. Review security procedures to determine if they need modified according to findings
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Scenario: Your organization employs single sign-on (user name and password only) as a convenience to your employees to access organizational systems and data. Permission to individual systems and databases is vetted and approved through supervisors and data owners to ensure that only approved personnel can use particular applications or retrieve information. 712-50 dumps All employees have access to their own human resource information, including the ability to change their bank routing and account information and other personal details through the Employee Self-Service application. All employees have access to the organizational VPN.
Recently, members of your organization have been targeted through a number of sophisticated phishing attempts and have compromised their system credentials. What action can you take to prevent the misuse of compromised credentials to change bank account information from outside your organization while still allowing employees to manage their bank information?
A. Turn off VPN access for users originating from outside the country
B. Enable monitoring on the VPN for suspicious activity
C. Force a change of all passwords
D. Block access to the Employee-Self Service application via VPN
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
Which of the following BEST describes an international standard framework that is based on the security model Information Technology–Code of Practice for Information Security Management?
A. International Organization for Standardization 27001
B. National Institute of Standards and Technology Special Publication SP 800-12
C. Request For Comment 2196
D. National Institute of Standards and Technology Special Publication SP 800-26
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
A system was hardened at the Operating System level and placed into the production environment. Months later an audit was performed and it identified insecure configuration different from the original hardened state. Which of the following security issues is the MOST likely reason leading to the audit findings?
A. Lack of asset management processes
B. Lack of change management processes
C. Lack of hardening standards
D. Lack of proper access controls
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
The FIRST step in establishing a security governance program is to?
A. Conduct a risk assessment.
B. Obtain senior level sponsorship.
C. Conduct a workshop for all end users.
D. Prepare a security budget.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 28
The Security Operations Center (SOC) just purchased a new intrusion prevention system (IPS) that needs to be deployed in-line for best defense. The IT group is concerned about putting the new IPS in-line because it might negatively impact network availability. What would be the BEST approach for the CISO to reassure the IT group?
A. Work with the IT group and tell them to put IPS in-line and say it won\’t cause any network impact
B. Explain to the IT group that the IPS won\’t cause any network impact because it will fail open
C. Explain to the IT group that this is a business need and the IPS will fail open however, if there is a network failure the CISO will accept responsibility
D. Explain to the IT group that the IPS will fail open once in-line however it will be deployed in monitor mode for a set period of time to ensure that it doesn\’t block any legitimate traffic
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
A business unit within your organization intends to deploy a new technology in a manner that places it in violation of existing information security standards. What immediate action should the information security manager take?
A. Enforce the existing security standards and do not allow the deployment of the new technology.
B. Amend the standard to permit the deployment.
C. If the risks associated with that technology are not already identified, perform a risk analysis to quantify the risk, and allow the business unit to proceed based on the identified risk level.
D. Permit a 90-day window to see if an issue occurs and then amend the standard if there are no issues.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 30
Scenario: You are the CISO and have just completed your first risk assessment for your organization. You find many risks with no security controls, and some risks with inadequate controls. You assign work to your staff to create or adjust existing security controls to ensure they are adequate for risk mitigation needs.
When adjusting the controls to mitigate the risks, how often should the CISO perform an audit to verify the controls?
A. Annually
B. Semi-annually
C. Quarterly
D. Never
Correct Answer: D

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High Quality Microsoft Office 365 70-347 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-15)

QUESTION 1
You are the Microsoft Lync administrator for a company that uses Lync Online. The company has mandated that employees may use Lync Online to communicate with contacts from approved external domains. You need to configure Lync Online to allow Lync federation with only three specific domains.
You must achieve this goal by using the least amount of administrative effort.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. In the Lync admin center, set the External Access option to On except for blocked domains.
B. In the Office 365 admin center, add the three domains to the domain list and set the domain intent for each domain to Lync Online.
C. In the Lync admin center, set the External Access option to Off completely.
D. In the Lync admin center, set the External Access option to On only for allowed domains.
E. In the Lync admin center, configure the Presence Privacy Mode option to display presence information only to the users’ contacts.
F. In the Lync admin center, add the three domains to the Blocked Or Allowed Domains list.
Correct Answer: D, F

QUESTION 2
Your company is planning to migrate to Microsoft Exchange Online. The company employs 1,000 people, each with a mailbox currently located on Exchange 2010 on-premises. You estimate that it will take a minimum of four weeks to migrate all mailboxes from on-premises Exchange to Exchange Online.
The company has the following migration requirements:
– During the migration, do not change the existing Microsoft Outlook profiles and .ost files used by the employees.
– Ensure that email messages sent between on-premises mailboxes and online mailboxes during the migration are secure.
– Do not send email messages between on-premises mailboxes and online mailboxes over the Internet in plain text.
You need to select the migration strategy that meets the requirements.
Which migration strategy should you use?
A. Cutover migration only
B. IMAP migration only
C. Remote move migration only
D. Staged migration only
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
DRAG DROP
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. You have been receiving many unsolicited email messages originating from another country. Many of those messages contain foreign-language content.
You need to configure Microsoft Exchange Online Protection to filter messages based on the language content and IP addresses of the country or region of origin.
Which filters and options should you configure? To answer, drag the appropriate answer choices to the correct targets. Each answer choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
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QUESTION 4
HOTSPOT
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. You manage an on-premises Microsoft Exchange Server 2003 environment that has 500 users and an externally-hosted Exchange environment that has 500 users. The hosted Exchange environment does not allow Outlook Anywhere connectivity. 70-347 dumps You do not have administrative access to all mailboxes in the hosted environment. You plan to migrate and consolidate both environments into Office 365.
You have the following migration requirements:
– Migrate on-premises mailboxes in batches by department.
– Migrate email, calendar, and contact items from the on-premises environment.
– Migrate only email from the hosted environment.
In the table below, identify the migration type that must be used for each environment. Make only one selection in each column. Each correct selection is worth one point.
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 5
HOTSPOT
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company’s Microsoft Exchange Online environment. The company recently subscribed to the Office 365 Enterprise El plan.
The company wants to filter email messages based on the following criteria:
– Reverse DNS lookup
– Sender open proxy test
– HELO/EHLO analysis
– Analysis of spam confidence level (SCL) ratings on email messages from a specific sender
You need to filter all email messages.
How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell script? To answer, select the appropriate command segment from each list in the answer area.
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 6
Your company is planning to migrate to Microsoft Exchange Online. The company employs 5,000 people, each with a mailbox currently located on Exchange Server 2000.
The company has the following migration requirements:
– Move mailboxes in batches.
– Do not migrate calendar or contact items.
– Provide migration status reports to administrators.
You need to select the appropriate migration strategy.
Which migration strategy should you use?
A. Staged migration
B. Cutover migration
C. IMAP migration
D. Hybrid migration
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company.
The company has established the following new requirements:
– Members of the legal team must be able to conduct eDiscovery searches.
– Employees must be notified when they send email messages that contain confidential information.
You need to configure the environment.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Configure journaling to a Microsoft Exchange Online mailbox for all mailboxes.
B. Add the members of the legal team to the Discovery Management role group.
C. Create a Data Loss Prevention policy.
D. Place all executive mailboxes on In-Place Hold for 365 days and use In-Place eDiscovery for mailbox searches.
E. Enable Microsoft Exchange Online Archiving for the executive mailboxes.
F. Place all executive mailboxes on Retention Hold.
Correct Answer: B, C

QUESTION 8
HOTSPOT
Your company has an Office 365 subscription and uses Microsoft Lync Online.
The environment includes the domains shown in the following image, and is configured as shown in the exhibit.(Click the Exhibit button.)
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For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. Each correct selection is worth one point.
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 9
HOTSPOT
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. Management has requested a report of all Microsoft Exchange ActiveSync-enabled employees and their devices. You need to generate a report that contains employee display names and device types.
How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell script? To answer, select the appropriate option from each list in the answer area.
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 10
HOTSPOT
A company has an on-premises deployment of Microsoft Exchange Server 2010 with Service Pack 3.The company is migrating to Office 365. During the migration, users must be able to see availability information between the on-premises deployment and Office 365. You need to identify the appropriate mailbox migration strategy to use.
Which migration strategies are supported for this scenario? To answer, drag the appropriate answer choices to the correct targets. Each answer choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 11
DRAG DROP
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. Employees share documents with internal and external users on Microsoft SharePoint Online sites. User1 inadvertently shares a link to Document1 with an external user named Customer1. You need to remove access to Document1 from Customer1.
Which five actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 12
HOTSPOT
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. A user wants to share a link to a presentation with a salesperson. The salesperson will share the link with potential customers.
You have the following requirements:
– Make a read-only version of the presentation available to anonymous users.
– Notify the salesperson by email when the presentation is available.
You need to configure the sharing settings.
How should you configure the sharing settings? To answer, configure the appropriate options in the dialog box in the answer area.
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 13
DRAG DROP
Your company uses Microsoft SharePoint Online. You create a subsite in an existing site collection. The subsite will serve as a document repository from which anyone can download documents. External sharing is turned off globally. You plan to share documents with users by emailing document links. Users must not be required to sign in to the subsite to download the documents. You need to configure the environment to allow document sharing with external users.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 14
Your company has an Office 365 Enterprise El subscription. The company wants to implement an enterprise document collaboration and social networking platform that allows users to upload documents from their computers and conduct informal polls. 70-347 dumps You need to implement a solution that meets the requirements.
Which solution should you implement?
A. Microsoft SharePoint document libraries
B. Microsoft SharePoint surveys
C. Microsoft Yammer
D. Microsoft SharePoint newsfeeds
E. Microsoft SkyDrive Pro
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Your company has an Office 365 Small Business subscription. You are the Microsoft SharePoint Online administrator. The company wants to have two separate public websites with different URLs. You need to configure the environment to support the public websites.
What should you do?
A. Upgrade to SharePoint Online for Office 365 Enterprise, Education, and Government.
B. Create one public website and one subsite, and then configure a redirect.
C. Create two public websites and configure the DNS records for each site.
D. Upgrade to SharePoint Online for Office 365 Midsize Business.
Correct Answer: B

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Microsoft Application Lifecycle Management 70-498 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-15)

QUESTION 1
You are the lead developer and architect of a development team that develops line of business (LOB) applications.
You need to define an architectural design process for the LOB applications.
Which three architectural goals and principles should you adopt? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose three.)
A. Build to change, instead of building to last.
B. Model to analyze and reduce risk.
C. Consider the team velocity.
D. Use models and visualizations as a communication and collaboration tool.
E. Baseline the architecture to ensure consistency and minimize deviation.
Correct Answer: ABD

Explanation:
Consider the following key principles when designing your architecture:
Build to change instead of building to last. Consider how the application may need to change over time to address new requirements and challenges, and build in the flexibility to support this.
Model to analyze and reduce risk. Use design tools, modeling systems such as Unified Modeling Language (UML), and visualizations where appropriate to help you capture requirements and architectural and design decisions, and to analyze their impact. However, do not formalize the model to the extent that it suppresses the capability to iterate and adapt the design easily.
Use models and visualizations as a communication and collaboration tool. Efficient communication of the design, the decisions you make, and ongoing changes to the design, is critical to good architecture. Use models, views, and other visualizations of the architecture to communicate and share your design efficiently with all the stakeholders, and to enable rapid communication of changes to the design. Identify key engineering decisions. Use the information in this guide to understand the key engineering decisions and the areas where mistakes are most often made. Invest in getting these key decisions right the first time so that the design is more flexible and less likely to be broken by changes.

QUESTION 2
You are the product owner for a new application. You have the list of product backlog items (PBIs) with assigned business values for the first release of the application. You will be working with an established scrum master and development team. You know the team’s capacity and the planned sprint duration.
You need to plan the release schedule based on your existing backlog.
Which three actions should you and the team perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Ask the development team to decompose the PBIs into individual tasks and estimate hours.
B. Ask the development team to provide high level estimates to complete each PBI.
C. Assign the PBIs to different sprints to define the release.
D. Use the TFS 2012 task board features.
E. Schedule the release using the Iteration Planning workbook.
F. Order the product backlog by business value.
Correct Answer: BCE

Explanation:
Not clear because according to Planning a release they say:
Note Release planning is no longer an official event in Scrum. It’s assumed that every organization will do some level of release planning. As far as Scrum is concerned, keeping the Product Backlog healthy and estimated is the best input for accurate release planning.

QUESTION 3
You manage a development team that uses the Microsoft Visual Studio Scrum 2.0 process template.
You establish a product backlog, allocate backlog items for a sprint, and define the tasks required to complete the sprint.
You need to ensure that the agreed upon work is assigned to team members.
Who should be responsible for assigning work to team members?
A. Team members
B. Product owner
C. Scrum master
D. Team lead
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
In Scrum, work should never be directed or assigned. When creating or updating a task, don’t assign it to anyone who doesn’t request the work.

QUESTION 4
Your development team uses the Microsoft Visual Studio Scrum 2.0 process template. You are the product owner.
Your product backlog includes a number of items that appear to have equal priority. However, the items have differing business value, complexity, and risk.
You need to order the backlog based on risk, complexity, and business value.
What should you do?
A. Work on items with the highest ratio of business value to effort first.
B. Work on items that have the highest effort first.
C. Work on items that have the lowest effort first.
D. Assign a risk factor to each product backlog item and work on items with the highest risk factor first.
E. Work on items that have the highest business value first.
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
The Product Backlog should be ordered by the Product Owner to maximize the value of the software being developed. He or she will know what features and bug fixes need to be developed before others.
Release planning depends on the backlog being correctly ordered. The order can be based on many factors: business value, risk, priority, technical value, learning value, or necessity.
Items at a higher order are clearer and more detailed than lower-ordered ones. Effort estimates are more accurate on these items as well. In fact, the higher the order, the more a PBI or bug has been considered, and the consensus is greater regarding it, its value, and its cost.

QUESTION 5
You are developing release plans for a new software development project.
You need to document a flexibility matrix.
Which three elements should you use? 70-498 dumps (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. schedule
B. risk mitigation
C. scope
D. cost or resources
E. decision-making authority
F. solution architecture
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 6
You are utilizing the Microsoft Solution Framework (MSF) for Agile Software Development 6.0 process template.
You need to track progress for the current sprint.
Which three actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Review team capacity.
B. From the Product Backlog view of the current sprint, review the By Work capacity bars for each contributor.
C. Review the task board.
D. Review the burndown chart.
E. From the project portal, review the Iteration Backlog spreadsheet.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 7
You are part of a scrum team that is trying to identify user stories to complete in the next sprint.
You and the team need to select user stories for the next sprint.
What should you do?
A. Have the product owner decide which user stories to complete within the sprint.
B. Have the scrum master decide which user stories to complete within the sprint.
C. Have the team decide which user stories to complete within the sprint.
D. Order the user stories by their story points. Select the top stories based on the team’s velocity.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
The Sprint is a fixed-length event (30 days or less) in which the Development Team forecasts items from the Product Backlog and develops the items in the Sprint Backlog according to the acceptance criteria and their Definition of “Done.”

QUESTION 8
Your development team uses the Microsoft Visual Studio Scrum 2.0 process template.
The team has identified items from the product backlog for the next sprint.
You need to ensure that the team has adequate capacity to complete the next sprint.
Which three actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Review the sprint Burndown chart.
B. Have the team assign hour estimates to each sprint task.
C. Review the sprint backlog.
D. Assign story points to each item in the product backlog.
E. Review the product backlog with forecast set to On to determine if the sprint can be completed based on the team’s velocity.
F. Set each team member’s per day capacity.
Correct Answer: CEF

Explanation:
Sprint Burndown charts can show the team how much work remains in the Sprint. These charts will often include an ideal trend line. This line represents the ideal rate at which the Development Team is able to complete all of the remaining effort, at a constant rate, by the end of the Sprint.
Professional Scrum Development with Microsoft Visual Studio 2012 p.283 Prior to the Sprint, there shouldn’t be any Task work items in the Sprint Backlog. Ideally, the Development Team creates its tasks during the Sprint Planning meeting and not before.
The Sprint Backlog contains those items selected by the Development Team plus a plan for delivering them. The Sprint Backlog shows the work remaining in the Sprint at all times.
Story points should be already assigned to PBIs during identification for the sprint.

QUESTION 9
Your company network includes a Microsoft Visual Studio Team Foundation Server (TFS) 2012 server and Microsoft System Center 2012. Your company launches a new customer sales portal.
It is critical that all issues identified as potential bugs get addressed in a timely manner.
You need to ensure that incident response times are managed across support and development teams.
What should you do?
A. Use Service Manager.
B. Create a new incident within System Center and assign it to a bug work item in TFS.
C. Use SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS) to query the Operations Manager Data Warehouse and create work items.
D. Use Orchestrator.
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
Service Manager provides an integrated platform for automating and adapting your organization’s IT service management best practices, such as those found in Microsoft Operations Framework (MOF) and Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL). It provides built-in processes for incident and problem resolution, change control, and asset lifecycle management.
Orchestrator provides a workflow management solution for the data center. Orchestrator lets you automate the creation, monitoring, and deployment of resources in your environment.

QUESTION 10
Your development team uses Microsoft Visual Studio Team Foundation Server (TFS) 2012 to develop and support an enterprise-wide web application.
The system is too large to perform a manual smoke test.
You need to ensure that the latest release to production has not broken anything.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Create a new build definition with your tests configured for the production URI(s). Run the tests and have TFS report success or failure.
B. Create a new virtual machine in Microsoft Test Manager (MTM) that mirrors your production environment. Create a new build that runs your test projects and have TFS report success or failure.
C. Create a series of CodedUI Tests in Microsoft Visual Studio.
D. Create a complete set of unit test projects within Microsoft Visual Studio 2012.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 11
Your company’s help desk support team comprises a single individual using an Excel spreadsheet to track tickets.
You want to improve the flow of information between the help desk and your development team.
You need to ensure that the lead developer receives updates only when new software defects are reported by the help desk.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. · Create a custom list on SharePoint to capture ticket information.
· Have the lead developer subscribe to an alert for each ticket that is created with a type of “software defect”.
B. · Use the System Center 2012 Ticket Manager to capture tickets from the help desk.
· Enable the ticket integration adapter to push tickets captured in System Center to TFS as bug work items.
· Have the lead developer subscribe to alerts for his or her assigned work items.
C. · Create a team project on your Team Foundation Server with a custom process template to track tickets.
· For software defects, have the help desk assign the tickets to the lead developer.
· Have the lead developer review his or her assigned tickets.
D. · Publish the Excel spreadsheet to a SharePoint document library.
· Configure an alert to notify the development lead when the spreadsheet is modified.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 12
Your team is setting up a test lab for the test team. Hyper-V is not the company virtualization standard. You are in a planning meeting representing the development team.
The information technology (IT) group indicates that they are reluctant to purchase a Hyper-V server and have limited resources available for maintaining test environments.
You need to suggest a solution for managing pre-production environments.
What should you do?
A. Explain that Standard Environments in Lab Management can be used, but that IT will still have to provision test VMs.
B. Explain that TFS Lab Management is a solution, but requires Hyper-V.
C. Explain that Standard Environments in Lab Management is a solution, but requires physical machines.
D. Explain that Lab Management is a solution and that IT will not need to be involved since Lab Management can be used to self provision test VMs.
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
Standard Environments: Standard environments can contain a mix of virtual and physical machines. You can also add virtual machines to a standard environment that are managed by third-party virtualization frameworks. In addition, standard environments do not require additional server resources such as an SCVMM server. SCVMM environments: SCVMM environments can only contain virtual machines that are managed by SCVMM (System Center Virtual Machine Manager), so the virtual machines in SCVMM environments can only run on the Hyper-V virtualization framework. However, SCVMM environments provide the following automation and management features that are not available in standard environments.

QUESTION 13
You develop a web application that will be automatically deployed to a staging web server on which Internet Information Services (115) 7 is installed. 70-498 dumps
You are defining a new build definition based on the DefaultTemplate.xaml build process template. This build definition will run every night and will publish the web application to a specific location.
You provide the following MSBuild arguments in your build definition:
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You need to ensure that all prerequisites are installed and configured at the web server to support the build definition.
What should you do?
A. Install a self-signed server certificate for the site on which the web application is deployed.
B. Install Team Foundation Power Tools.
C. Install and configure Microsoft Web Deploy and Web Management Services.
D. Create an FTP site for the address staging.mycompany.com.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
You have a web application that should be automatically deployed to a standard environment, including two staging web servers. You USE the LabDefaultTemplate.11.xaml build process template for your build definition.
You plan to run automated tests on the application as part of the build process.
You need to configure the build definition to deploy the application.
What should you do?
A. Create deployment scripts to perform the deployment. In the Deploy section of the build process template, select Deploy the build and specify the computer names and the scripts to be executed.
B. In the build definition, specify the MS Build arguments as /p:DeployOnBuild=true;DeployTargetPackage.
C. Define separate drop folders for each web server.
D. In the build definition, specify Private Drop Location. Indicate the scripts to be executed after a successful build.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
You develop a solution that contains an ASP.NET Model View Controller (MVC) application. You have a continuous integration build named CodeBuild which compiles the application. Your information technology (IT) department provides you with a virtual machine (VM) for testing purposes. The VM has Internet Information Services (IIS) 7.5 installed and configured.
Currently, developers publish to the VM directly from Visual Studio when the test team requests a deployment. The current release process is unreliable and burdensome to the development team.
You need to create an efficient and flexible method to automate the deployment of the website when requested by the test team.
What should you do?
A. · Create a Powershell script that copies the website from the build drop folder to the test VM.
· Check in the script to TFS.
· Add an activity to the CodeBuild workflow that invokes the PowerShell script.
B. · Create a standard environment using the test VM.
· Create a lab workflow named DeployBuild and select CodeBuild as the source build.
· Configure a deployment command to copy the website from the build drop folder to the IIS web directory.
· Instruct the test team to invoke the DeployBuild when they request a new release.
C. · Customize the CodeBuild workflow to copy the website from the build drop folder to the IIS web directory on the test VM.
· Instruct the test team to invoke the CodeBuild when they wish to test.
D. · Make the IIS Web Directory on the test VM a Universal Naming Convention (UNC) file share.
· Modify the CodeBuild, setting this share as the drop folder for the build.
· Instruct the test team to invoke the CodeBuild when they wish to test.
Correct Answer: B

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Best Microsoft IT Infrastructure 98-367 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-40)

QUESTION 1
What is the primary advantage of using Active Directory Integrated Zones?
A. Zone encryption
B. Password protection
C. Non-repudiation
D. Secure replication
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. Each correct selection is worth one point.
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QUESTION 3
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. Each correct selection is worth one point.
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Correct Answer:
QUESTION 4
What is a service set identifier (SSID)?
A. A wireless encryption standard
B. The wireless LAN transmission type
C. The broadcast name of an access point
D. A wireless security protocol
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Alice and Bob are exchanging messages with each other. 98-367 dumps Chuck modifies the messages sent between Alice and Bob as shown in the following image:
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QUESTION 6
You are an intern at Litware, Inc. Your manager asks you to make password guess attempts harder by limiting login attempts on company computers.
What should you do?
A. Enforce password sniffing.
B. Enforce password history.
C. Make password complexity requirements higher.
D. Implement account lockout policy.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. Each correct selection is worth one point.
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QUESTION 8
A user who receives a large number of emails selling prescription medicine is probably receiving pharming mail.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select andquot;No change is neededandquot; if the underlined text makes the statement correct.
A. Malware
B. Spoofed mail
C. Spam
D. No change is needed.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which is a special folder permission?
A. Read
B. Modify
C. Write
D. Delete
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
The purpose of a digital certificate is to verify that a:
A. Public key belongs to a sender.
B. Computer is virus-free.
C. Private key belongs to a sender.
D. Digital document is complete.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Password history policies are used to prevent:
A. Brute force attacks
B. Users from sharing passwords
C. Social engineering
D. Passwords from being reused immediately
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
You need to install a domain controller in a branch office. You also need to secure the information on the domain controller. You will be unable to physically secure the server. 98-367 dumps
Which should you implement?
A. Read-Only Domain Controller
B. Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP)
C. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)
D. Server Core Domain Controller
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
To protect systems from buffer overflow errors, you can use:
A. Antivirus software
B. Data Execution Prevention
C. A proxy server
D. An Intruder Prevention System
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
The default password length for a Windows Server domain controller is:
A. 0
B. 5
C. 7
D. 14
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Cookies impact security by enabling: (Choose two.)
A. Storage of Web site passwords.
B. Higher security Web site protections.
C. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL).
D. Web sites to track browsing habits.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 16
A brute force attack:
A. Uses response filtering
B. Tries all possible password variations
C. Uses the strongest possible algorithms
D. Targets all the ports
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Before you deploy Network Access Protection (NAP), you must install:
A. Internet Information Server (IIS)
B. Network Policy Server (NPS)
C. Active Directory Federation Services
D. Windows Update Service
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
You suspect a user\’s computer is infected by a virus. What should you do first?
A. Restart the computer in safe mode
B. Replace the computer\’s hard disk drive
C. Disconnect the computer from the network
D. Install antivirus software on the computer
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
You need to prevent unauthorized users from reading a specific file on a portable computer if the portable computer is stolen. What should you implement?
A. File-level permissions
B. Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
C. Folder-level permissions
D. Distributed File System (DFS)
E. BitLocker
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 20
You have a Windows 7 desktop computer, and you create a Standard User account for your roommate so that he can use the desktop from time to time. Your roommate has forgotten his password.
Which two actions can you take to reset the password? (Choose two.)
A. Use your password reset disk.
B. Use your administrator account.
C. Boot into Safe Mode with your roommate\’s account.
D. From your roommate\’s account press CTRL+ALT+DELETE, and then click Change a password.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 21
In Internet Explorer 8, the InPrivate Browsing feature prevents:
A. Unauthorized private data input.
B. Unencrypted communication between the client computer and the server.
C. User credentials from being sent over the Internet.
D. Any session data from being stored on the computer.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
Your supervisor asks you to review file permission settings on the application.bat file. You need to report which file system the file is on and the type of permission the file has. 98-367 dumps You review the application Properties dialog box shown in the following image: Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement. Each correct selection is worth one point.
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QUESTION 23
Which type of firewall allows for inspection of all characteristics of a packet?
A. NAT
B. Stateful
C. Stateless
D. Windows Defender
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. Each correct selection is worth one point.
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QUESTION 25
Which provides the highest level of security in a firewall?
A. Stateful inspection
B. Outbound packet filters
C. Stateless inspection
D. Inbound packet filters
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Passwords that contain recognizable words are vulnerable to a:
A. Denial of Service attack
B. Hashing attack
C. Dictionary attack
D. Replay attack
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Humongous Insurance is an online healthcare insurance company. During an annual security audit a security firm tests the strength of the company\’s password policy and suggests that Humongous Insurance implement password history policy.
What is the likely reason that the security firm suggests this?
A. Past passwords were easily cracked by the brute force method.
B. Past passwords of users contained dictionary words.
C. Previous password breaches involved use of past passwords.
D. Past passwords lacked complexity and special characters.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 28
You are trying to establish communications between a client computer and a server. The server is not responding.
You confirm that both the client and the server have network connectivity.
Which should you check next?
A. Microsoft Update
B. Data Execution Prevention
C. Windows Firewall
D. Active Directory Domains and Trusts
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
Coho Winery wants to increase their web presence and hires you to set up a new web server. Coho already has servers for their business and would like to avoid purchasing a new one.
Which server is best to use as a web server, considering the security and performance concerns?
A. SQL Server
B. File Server
C. Domain Controller
D. Application Server
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 30
Which password attack uses all possible alpha numeric combinations?
A. Social engineering
B. Brute force attack
C. Dictionary attack
D. Rainbow table attack
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 31
Humongous Insurance needs to set up a domain controller in a branch office. Unfortunately, the server cannot be sufficiently secured from access by employees in that office, so the company is installing a Primary Domain Controller.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select andquot;No change is neededandquot; if the underlined text makes the statement correct.
A. Read-Only Domain Controller
B. Backup Domain Controller
C. Active Directory Server
D. No change is needed.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 32
What does implementing Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) allow a company to manage?
A. Shared private encryption key updates
B. Updates to Group Policy Objects
C. Active Directory server replication
D. Windows updates for workstations and servers
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 33
You need to limit the programs that can run on client computers to a specific list. 98-367 dumps Which technology should you implement?
A. Windows Security Center
B. Security Accounts Manager
C. System Configuration Utility
D. AppLocker group policies
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 34
To prevent users from copying data to removable media, you should:
A. Lock the computer cases
B. Apply a group policy
C. Disable copy and paste
D. Store media in a locked room
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 35
Many Internet sites that you visit require a user name and password. How should you secure these passwords?
A. Save them to a text file
B. Enable session caching
C. Configure the browser to save passwords
D. Save them to an encrypted file
E. Reuse the same password
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 36
What are three major attack vectors that a social engineering hacker may use? (Choose three.)
A. Telephone
B. Reverse social engineering
C. Waste management
D. Honey pot systems
E. Firewall interface
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 37
You have two servers that run Windows Server. All drives on both servers are formatted by using NTFS. You move a file from one server to the other server. The file\’s permissions in the new location will:
A. Enable full access to the everyone group
B. Restrict access to the Administrators group
C. Inherit the destination folder\’s permissions
D. Retain the original folder\’s permissions
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 38
Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) is a tool that:
A. Updates data stored in Windows servers
B. Manages the services that run on a server
C. Updates licensing for Windows servers
D. Manages updates for Microsoft software
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 39
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. Each correct selection is worth one point.
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QUESTION 40
The Active Directory controls, enforces, and assigns security policies and access rights for all users. Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select andquot;No change is neededandquot; if the underlined text makes the statement correct.
A. NTFS permissions
B. User Account Control
C. Registry
D. No change is needed
Correct Answer: D

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Newest Microsoft MCP, Microsoft Specialist 74-678 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-20)

QUESTION 1
An organization has client computers that run Windows 7. You upgrade the client computers to Windows 8 without migrating the local user profiles.
You install the Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit (ADK) in the environment.
You need to migrate the user profiles from the Windows 7 installation to the Windows 8 installation.
What should you do first on each client computer?
A. Copy the Default Profile to a folder on drive C.
B. Run Windows Easy Transfer and select the user profile to migrate.
C. Run the scanstate command.
D. Run the loadstate command.
E. Run the ImageX command.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A company has 100 client computers that run Windows XP 64-bit Edition.
You are deploying new computers that run a 32-bit version of Windows 8.
You need to transfer the contents of each user’s Documents folder to the new computer by using the least amount of administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. Manually copy the folder content to a USB flash drive. Then paste the files to the new computer.
B. Use the User State Migration Tool.
C. Use Windows Easy Transfer.
D. Back up the folders by running the NTBackup command. Then restore the backup to the new computer.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
A company has client computers that run Windows 8.
You install a new device on a client computer. The device installation includes an application that runs when the computer starts. You experience problems with the application.
You need to prevent the application from running when the computer starts, without affecting any other application.
What should you do?
A. Configure the device by using Device Manager.
B. Run the msconfig command.
C. Run the bcdedit command.
D. Configure the application by using Task Manager.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
A company has an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain. All client computers run Windows 8.
You need to minimize the amount of Trusted Platform Module (TPM) authorization information that is stored in the registry.
What should you do?
A. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) that disables the Configure the level of TPM owner authorization information available to operating system policy setting.
B. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) that enables the Turn on TPM Local Encryption policy setting.
C. Enable Platform Configuration Register indices (PCRs) 0, 2, 4, and 11 for the Configure TPM validation profile for native UEFI firmware configuration policy setting.
D. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) that sets the Configure the level of TPM owner authorization information available to operating system policy setting to None.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
You administer computers that run Windows 8 Enterprise in an Active Directory domain. Your company has purchased a subscription to Windows Intune.
Users access a Microsoft Exchange environment by using the Mail tile. The Microsoft Exchange environment is connected to Windows Intune. Company security policy defines the minimum length of passwords and required encryption settings.
You need to create a Windows Intune policy that meets the security policy requirements.
What should you do?
A. Create a new Windows Intune Mobile Security policy.
B. Create a new Windows Firewall Settings policy.
C. Create a new Windows Intune Center Settings policy.
D. Create a new Windows Intune Agent Settings policy.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
You support computers that run Windows 8 Pro and are members of an Active Directory domain. Several desktop computers are located in a subnet that is protected by a firewall. 74-678 dumps The firewall allows incoming TCP connections only to ports 80 and 443.
You want to manage disk volumes on the desktop computers from your computer, which is located outside the protected subnet.
You need to configure the network to support the required remote administration access.
What should you do?
A. Run the winrm quickconfig command on the desktop computers.
B. Run the winrm quickconfig command on your computer.
C. Enable Remote Desktop on the desktop computers.
D. Install Remote Server Administration Tools (RSAT) on your computer.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
You administer client computers that run Windows 8 Enterprise deployed by using Windows Deployment Services (WDS). Your company recently purchased 25 new tablets that run Windows 8 Pro.
For all 25 new tablets, you want to replace the existing Windows 8 Pro installation with Windows 8 Enterprise.
You need to deploy the Windows 8 Enterprise image to all 25 tablets simultaneously by using the existing WDS infrastructure.
What should you do?
A. Start the tablets from a USB flash drive with a customized Windows Preinstallation Environment (WinPE).
B. Start the tablets normally. Map the Windows Image (WIM) file from a WDS network share.
C. Start the tablets in Windows Recovery mode.
D. Start the tablets from the Windows To Go workspace.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
A company has client computers that run Windows 8. File History is on.
An employee downloads data to a folder on drive D named Archives.
You need to ensure that the user can restore files from the Archives folder by using File History.
What should you do?
A. Start the Windows Backup service.
B. Start the Block Level Backup Engine service.
C. Turn on the Volume Shadow Copy Service.
D. Create a library named History and add the Archives folder to the library.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
A company has an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain with one physical domain controller. All client computers run Windows 8.
A client computer hosts a Windows 8 virtual machine (VM) test environment. The VMs are connected to a private virtual switch that is configured as shown in the Virtual Switch Manager exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
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The VMs are unable to connect to the domain controller. You have the following requirements:
• Configure the test environment to allow VMs to communicate with the domain controller.
• Ensure that the VMs can communicate with other VMs in the test environment when the domain controller is unavailable.
You need to meet the requirements. What should you do first?
A. Change the connection type of the private virtual switch to Internal only.
B. Create a new virtual switch with a Private Network connection type.
C. Create a new virtual switch with an ExternalNetwork connection type.
D. Create a new virtual switch with an Internal Network connection type.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
You administer a computer that runs Windows 8 Pro.
You need to create a backup copy of the computer system drive. The backup copy must support a complete system drive restore to another computer.
What should you do?
A. Run the bcdedit /export command.
B. Create a system restore point.
C. Create a system recovery drive.
D. Perfom a backup to a shared folder by using the wbadmin command with the -allcritical switch.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
You manage computers that run Windows 8.
You plan to install a desktop app named App1 on one of the client computers.
You need to install the app without any user interaction and without displaying a progress bar.
Which command should you run? 74-678 dumps
A. msiexec /i app1.msi /qb
B. msiexec /i app1.msi /qn
C. msiexec /x app1.msi /qb
D. msiexec /x app1.msi /qn
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
You install Windows 8 on a desktop computer and install a third-party desktop app. The computer runs optimally until you install another third-party desktop app.
You need to remove only the most recently installed third-party desktop app.
You start the computer from a system repair disk.
Which troubleshooting option should you use?
A. Remove everything and install Windows
B. Refresh your PC without affecting your files
C. System Restore
D. System Image Recovery
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
A company has client computers that run Windows 8. Each employee has one client computer at the office. Some employees also have personal computers at home.
The company has applications that run only on Windows 8.
You need to deploy Windows To Go so that employees can run the applications on their home computers.
Which two command-line tools should you use? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. ImageX
B. bcdboot
C. BdeHdCfg
D. isoburn
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 14
A company has client computers that run Windows 8.
You attempt to roll back a driver for a specific device on a client computer. The Roll Back Driver button is unavailable in Device Manager.
You need to roll back the driver to the previous version.
What should you do first?
A. Disable driver signature enforcement.
B. Run Device Manager as an administrator.
C. In the local Group Policy, modify the device installation restrictions.
D. In the system properties for hardware, modify the device installation settings.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
You update the video card driver on a portable computer that runs Windows 8.
When a user connects the portable computer to an external monitor, the external monitor duplicates the display on the portable computer screen.
You need to ensure that the user can display additional desktop space on the external monitor.
What should you do?
A. Run the DisplaySwitch /extend command.
B. Start the computer from the Windows 8 installation media and perform a system image recovery.
C. Run the sfc /scannow command.
D. Roll back the video card driver to the previous version.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
A company has an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain. All client computers run Windows 8. Client computers use Windows BitLocker Drive Encryption with a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) chip.
You need to create a Group Policy object (GPO) that will secure the TPM owner information.
Which policy setting should you configure?
A. Enable the Turn on TPM backup to Active Directory Domain Services policy setting.
B. Enable the Configure TPM platform validation profile policy setting.
C. Enable the Configure the level of TPM usage authorization information available to the registry policy setting.
D. Set the Configure the level of TPM owner authorization information available to operating system policy setting to Full.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
You are a Windows 8 user. Your organization has purchased an Office 365 subscription. You install Microsoft Lync and Microsoft Outlook on your computer.
You need to connect Office 365 to Lync and Outlook.
What should you do?
A. Run the Windows Mail application. Add a new account by using your Office 365 credentials.
B. Run the People application. Add a new account by using your Office 365 credentials.
C. Run the Office Professional Plus setup from the Office 365 portal.
D. Run the Office 365 desktop setup from the Office 365 portal.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
You administer computers that run Windows 8 Enterprise in an Active Directory domain in a single Active Directory Site. All user account objects in Active Directory have the Manager attribute populated. The company has purchased a subscription to Windows Intune. The domain security groups are synchronized with the Microsoft Online directory.
You create a Windows Intune group that specifies a manager as a membership criterion. You notice that the group has no members.
You need to ensure that users that meet the membership criteria are added to the Windows Intune group.
What should you do?
A. Ensure that the user who is performing the search has been synchronized with the Microsoft Online directory.
B. Force Active Directory replication within the domain.
C. Ensure that all user accounts are identified as synchronized users.
D. Synchronize the Active Directory Domain Service (AD DS) with the Microsoft Online directory.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
A company has an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain. All client computers run Windows 7. You plan to upgrade the client computers to Windows 8 Pro. 74-678 dumps
You need to choose the methods that do not require the manual entry of a product key during the upgrade.
Which two methods should you choose? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. Use the Windows 8 online upgrade tool.
B. Use Group Policy to assign the Windows 8 installation file to the client computers.
C. Use the Microsoft Deployment Toolkit.
D. Extract the contents of the Windows 8 .iso image file to a new shared folder and run the setup program from that folder.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 20
You administer computers that run Windows 8 Pro. The desktops have the Application Virtualization (App-V) client installed. Multiple App-V applications are published on the network.
A user reports that it is taking a long time to launch App-V applications on his computer. You discover that the user has a roaming profile on the computer.
You need to minimize the time that is required for the user to start App-V applications on the computer.
What should you do?
A. Change the location of the App-V client cache file on the computer.
B. Change the user profile to Local.
C. Increase the size of the App-V client cache on the computer.
D. Change the user profile to Super-Mandatory.
Correct Answer: C

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Best Microsoft Project 74-343 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (1-15)

QUESTION 1
Your organization uses Project Professional 2013 and records actual hours worked on the project. You manage a small e-commerce website implementation project.
One of your testers asks for assistance in completing a critical task, and you find two additional testing resources that can assist with executing the critical test cases. The total estimated work for the effort-driven task is 100 hours. The original testing resource, Resource1, completes 25 hours of work on the task. You need to add Resource2 and Resource3 to the task and split the remaining hours across all three resources now working on the task. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Open the Task Form and format it to show Work Details. Enter 25 hours of actual work for Resource1. Then save the changes.
B. Open the Task Form and format it to show Work Details. Enter 75 hours of remaining work for the assigned resource. Then save the changes.
C. Assign Resource2 and Resource3 to the task. Then save the changes.
D. Open the Task Form and format it to show Work Details. Enter 33.33 hours of work for each resource. Then save the changes.
Correct Answer: A, C

QUESTION 2
You are managing a project using Project Professional 2013. Your project schedule is showing task over allocation indicators in the Gantt chart view. You navigate to the Team Planner view to investigate more details regarding the over allocations.
You discover that the BA1 resource is over allocated and you need to see all assignments with details for BA1 to understand their current workload before making any assignment changes. What should you do?
A. Click the BA1 resource and scroll to the end of the project.
B. Click View, check Details, select Resource Form then click on the BA1 resource.
C. Click View, check Details, select Task Form then click on the BA1 resource.
D. Right-click the BA1 resource and select Information.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
You are a project manager who uses Project Standard 2013. You are creating a preliminary project schedule and are estimating the number of resources required prior to finalizing the schedule. You do not have named resources to complete the tasks, but you know the resource roles that are necessary. One of the roles needed is architect. You need to estimate how many architect hours are required to complete the work. What should you do?
A. Add a Material Resource named architect.
B. Add a Budget Resource named architect.
C. Add a Work Resource named architect,
D. Add a Cost Resource named architect.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Your company uses Project Professional 2013. You are setting up a preliminary schedule by using manually scheduled tasks. You create a task with no duration, start, or finish date, and then you assign a resource. Later, you enter a duration of three days for that task. You need to let the resource know how the Work will be affected. What should you say?
A. Work will increase to 24 hours.
B. Work will remain at 0 hours.
C. Work will increase to 16 hours.
D. Work will remain at 8 hours.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
You are a program manager who uses Project Professional 2013. You manage a portfolio of projects for a large point of sale implementation. All of your project managers have created individual project schedules. You discover that you have resource constraints since multiple resources are working on multiple projects. 74-343 dumps You need visibility into resources across all projects so that you can most efficiently manage the resources and their availability. What should you do?
A. Create a shared resource pool and send the location to each project manager. Open the individual project and the resource pool. From the individual project, select Resource Pool, Share Resources, and choose Use Resources.
B. Create a shared resource pool and send the location to each Project Manager. Open the individual project, select Resource Pool, Share Resources, and choose Use Resources.
C. Create a master resource list and send it to each project manager. Open the individual project and copy and paste it into the Resource Sheet.
D. Create a master resource list and send it to each project manager. Open the individual project, select Team Planner, and add the resources.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP
Your company uses Project Professional 2013.
You are a program manager in charge of a multi-program software integration project. The project is scheduled from January 1, 2012-August 3, 2013. You have a consultant resource that charges a different rate based on each task completed. Tasks 1 through 9 are billed at a rate of $150.00 per hour. Tasks 10 through 20 are billed at a rate of $175.00 per hour. You need to set up your schedule to ensure that the correct resource rate is associated with the correct tasks. Which two actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate two actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 7
Your organization uses Microsoft Project 2013. You are finalizing the Project Schedule for a very complex project with over 100 resources. You need to ensure that all tasks are assigned to resources. What should you do?
A. Use Task Usage view and look for Unassigned tasks.
B. Use Resource Graph view and look for the Unassigned resource name.
C. Use Resource Usage view and look for the Unassigned resource name.
D. Use Resource Sheet view and look for Unassigned tasks.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
You are a project manager who uses Project Professional 2013. You work on a construction project that requires propane as a fuel source for your equipment. The foreman requires that you enter project costs associated with all work completed on your project. The propane costs $5.00 per gallon, and the tank holds 500 gallons of propane. Each time the tank is refilled, you must pay a fee of $20. You need to enter the propane costs into your project schedule prior to filling the propane tank for the first time. What should you do?
A. Create a material resource with a material label of gallons. Enter $20 in the cost per use and $5.00 in the standard rate.
B. Create a cost resource, add the resource to a task, and enter $25 in the actual cost.
C. Create a material resource with a material label of gallons. Enter $20 in the standard rate and $5.00 in the cost per use.
D. Create a cost resource, add the resource to a task, and enter $2520 in the actual cost.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
You are a project manager for a software development company. You use Project Professional 2013. You manage an integration project, and you discover that you need to add additional resources to the integration tasks in order to meet your development complete milestone date. The project is behind schedule, so you must shorten the duration of the integration development work. You identify two additional resources to work on the integration task. When you add these resources, your task now shows it will complete three days ahead of schedule, which leaves a contingency window for issues that may arise. In order to shorten the duration of the task when the resources are added, you need to set the task type before adding the resources. What should you do?
A. Use an automatically scheduled task and set the task type to fixed duration.
B. Use a manually scheduled task and set the task type to fixed work.
C. Use an automatically scheduled task and set the task type to fixed work.
D. Use a manually scheduled task and set the task type to fixed duration.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
You are a project manager, and your organization uses Project Professional 2013.
You have created a detailed project schedule and have identified two tasks that are causing your resource to be over allocated. You need to use the Team Planner to reassign these tasks from the over allocated resources to under allocated resources with the same skill set. What should you do?
A. Right-click the task and reassign it to the underallocated resource.
B. Drag the underallocated resource on the task to reassign it.
C. Drag one of the tasks from the overallocated resource to the Unassigned Tasks section.
D. Right-click the resource and reassign it to the underallocated resource.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
You are a senior project manager, and your organization uses Project Standard 2013.
You are managing a large ERP project with both part-time and full-time resources.
The part-time resources have strict contractual limitations regarding working days and hourly availability. You need to make sure the tasks for your part-time resources are only scheduled in the calendar during their agreed-upon working days and hours.
What should you do?
A. Change the part-time resources’ tasks to manually scheduled to ensure the dates do not go past the agreed-upon terms of their contract.
B. Enter the availability start and end dates for each resource and change the percent of units to the agreed-upon amount in their contract.
C. Enter the availability start and end dates for each resource and change the working time for each resource to only include days and hours agreed upon in their contract.
D. Change the part-time resources’ units to the percentage they are available and set task constraints to must finish on to ensure the dates do not go past the agreed-upon terms of their contract.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Your organization uses Project Professional 2013. A senior stakeholder in a project asks you to determine when a task is over budget by comparing the baseline cost of a task to the cost. Additionally, the senior stakeholder wants you to display a graphic indicator when the baseline cost is greater than the cost. 74-343 dumps You write a formula to display the indicator, but it only displays for normal tasks and not for summary tasks. You need to make the indicator display for summary tasks. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Within the Custom Field, set Calculation for task and group summary rows to Use Formula.
B. Within the Custom Field, set Calculation for task and group summary rows to Maximum.
C. Within the Graphical Indicators dialog box, check the Import Indicator Criteria button.
D. Within the Graphical Indicators dialog box, check Summary rows inherit criteria from nonsummary row.
Correct Answer: A, D

QUESTION 13
You are a project manager, and you successfully complete a server consolidation project for one of your data centers. You use Project Standard 2013 to plan and track the work. Your manager wants you to begin similar projects on two other data centers. You need to create a template based on the plan you used to manage the first data center consolidation project. You need to ensure that the template has all baseline and actual data values removed. What should you do?
A. Within Microsoft Windows Explorer, create a copy of the original project plan and rename the file type from .mpp to .mpt.
B. Open the plan and use the Move Project button to set the start date to the start of the new project. Save the project file as Template.mpp.
C. Open the plan and reset the percent complete for each task to 0. Save the file as Template.mpp.
D. Open the plan and save the plan as a Project Template.
E. Open the plan, and copy and paste all of the task information into a new plan. Save the plan as a Project Template.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
You are project manager who uses Project Professional 2013. Your organization uses Microsoft SharePoint 2013 and uses a SharePoint task list to define the tasks required on an upcoming project. The task list contains over 100 items. You need to create a project based on the tasks in the SharePoint list in the most efficient manner.
What should you do?
A. Export the tasks into Microsoft Excel and then import the Excel file into Project Professional 2013.
B. Edit the Project Summary Task hyperlink column to point to the SharePoint task list and click the Import button.
C. Open the tasks directly from the SharePoint site into Project Professional 2013.
D. Copy and paste the tasks from SharePoint into Project Professional 2013.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
You are a project manager who uses Project Standard 2013. You have been told to build multiple project files for a program. You need to have all of your projects start with auto scheduled tasks by default. What should you do?
A. Under schedule options, set New tasks created to Auto Scheduled for each project.
B. Use the Task Mode field to change the first task to Auto Schedule, then copy down for all of your tasks.
C. Under schedule options, set New tasks created to Auto Scheduled for all new projects.
D. Highlight all of the tasks in your schedule and select the Auto Schedule button.
Correct Answer: C

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